2015-11-09

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Download TNPSC Group 1 2015 Answerkey

The TNPSC Group 1 Exam 2015 was conducted today  (08-11-2015). You may download TNPSC Gr 1 Answerkeys of Private Coaching Centres from the below links.

Download TNPSC Group 1 Exam 2015 Answer Key by Appolo Study Centre, Chennai

http://appolosupport.com/

Download TNPSC Gr 1 08-11-2015 Answerkey by NR IAS Academy, Trichy

http://www.nriasacademy.com/

TNPSC Group 1 Exam 2015 Expected Cut Off Marks

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How was the TNPSC Group 1 Exam 2015 ?

Dear Group 1 Aspirants, please share your views on the Group 1 Preliminary Exam conducted today. Post your views  in the comment area of this post, it will be useful for others.

TNPSC Group One Exam 2015 Notification was published on 10-02-2015 for filling up 74 Group One Grade Posts in the Tamilnadu State Civil Services . The total number of posts included 19 Deputy Collectors, 26 DSps, 21 Assistant Commissioner of Commercial Tax and 8 District Registrar posts. Candidates were allowed to apply online upto 09-08-2015.



When will TNPSC Group 1 Official Answerkey be published?

TNPSC used to publish official answerkeys with in 3-5 days of particular exam. So we can expect the answerkey with in second week of November 2015.

The Official Answerkey will be published in the following website

http://www.tnpsc.gov.in/answerkeys.html

TNPSC Group 1 Exam 2015 Original Question Paper - Subject wise classified

*** Answers to be updated. You start discussion now in the comment area

Biology

1.The purines present in nucleic acids are :

2.Find out the correct match/es

I. Enzymes - Biological catalysts

II.DNA      - Nucleic acid

III.Insulin - Hormone

IV. Vitamin E - Water Soluble Vitamine

3. The itai-itai disease of Japan was caused due to

4.Match the following:

a)Sericulture 1. Farming if aquatic orgaisms

b)Horticulture  2. Culture of honey bees

c)Aquaculture 3. Rearing of silk worms

d) Apiculture 4. Cultivation and maintaining gardens

5.The plant type which colours the ocean surface water red is

6. Identify the numbered substances in steps of Glycolysis.

Glucose ---> (1) -----> (2)----> Fructose 1, 6 biphosphate

7. Consider the following pairs. Which is/ are correct ?

I. Thallophyta - Algae and Fungi

II.Tracheophyta - All vascular plants

III. Bryophyta - Liver worts and Fungi

IV. Pteridophyta - Mosses and Mushrooms

8. If a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned man, they will produce

9. Cretisnism, myxoedema and goitre are related to the disorders of the

10. Which one of the following is not correctly matched

A. Anopheles stephensi - Leishmaniasis

B. Glossina Palpalis - Sleeping sickness

C.Culex Pipiens - Filariasis

D.Aedes Aegypti - Dengue fever

11. Match the following

1.Thiamine (a) Cheilosis (i) Pellagra

2.Niacin (b) Polyneuritis(ii)Glossitis

3.Riboflavin(c)Nicotinamide(iii)Beri beri

4.Biotin (d)Antipernic(iv)Hyperestheria

5.Cyanacobalamine (e) Coenzyme (v) Pernicious anaemia

12. Match the following

a)  Krebs cycle   1.  Occurs in cytoplasm

b)  Ubiquinone  2.  Diffuse from cytoplasm to mitochondria

c)  Glycolysis   3.  Mobile carrier

d)  Acetyl-CoA   4. Occurs in mitochondrial matrix

13. Which of the following statements about 'Glycolysis' is/are true?
I.Glycolysis is also known as pentose phosphate pathway
II.The substrate of Glycolysis is Glucose
III.The final product of Glycolysis is Glycogen

IV.Glycolysis is also known as Glyoxylate cycle

14 . Arrange the following common units of classification in ascending order

I. Family
II.Order
III.Species

IV.Variety

15. Where is the head quarter of the Forest Survey of India FSI located ?

Chemistry

1. Match the following

a)    Na and K     1.  Obtained by electrolysis of fused salt

b)    Cu and Ag    2. Occur only in native state

c)    Au and Pt     3.  Occur both native and combined state

d)     Na and Ca  4. Reducing agent in metallurgy

e)     Al and Mg  5.Occur only i combined state

2. Which if the following is/are wrong ?

I. Mg2C3 on hydrolysis gives acetylene

II. Be2C on hydrolysis gives methane

III.Al4C3 on hydrolysis gives allylene

3. An example of commonly used herbicide is

4. For the Daniel cell E=1.10 V. The value of equilibrium constant for the reaction at 298 K is

5. New elements and rare - earths are discovered and fixed in the periodic table using which law

6. Arrange the following in the order of increasing solubility in water
i. NaHCO3 ii. KHCO3 iii. Mg(HCO3)2 iv. Ca(HCO3)2

7.Match the following:
Actinide element Atomic number
A. Plutonium 1. 102
B. Curium 2. 100
C. Fermium 3. 96
D. Nobelium 4. 94

8.Match the Number of electrons transferred (a) when one mole of KMnO4 is reduced to (b)

A. 1,   3,    4,   5

B. Mn2O3, MnO2, MnO4(2-), Mn2+,

9. Consider the following statements about Suraksha Hose and select the correct statements

1. The hose is made of rubber and is green – coloured

2. The outer layer of the hose is fire resistant

3. The middle layer of the hose is made of brass- coated high carbon steel wire mesh

Physics

1. If the time taken by a cup of tea to cool from 85 degree to 75 degree celcius is one minute then the time taken by it to cool from 65 degree to 55 degree is

2. The rest mass of a photon is

3. Which of the following sets have different dimensions ?

4. The portion of the incident radiation reflected back to space from the planet is called

5. The number of generalized coordinates required to describe the position of a simple pendulum is

6. If g is the acceleration due to gravity and R is the radium of the earth, then escape velocity is given by the relation

7. The relation connecting Young's modulus (E) , Bilk modulus (K) and Rigidity modulus (N) is

8. The SI unit of gravitational consstant G is

Economics

1. Match the following and select the correct answer

a)   Tax revenue  1.  Provident funds

b)   Capital receipts 2.  Taxes on income and expenditure

c)   Non-plan expenditure 3.  Sales tax

d)   Value added tax  4. Interest payments

2. National Statistical Commission of India was headed by

A. Monteck Singh Ahluwaliya

B. C.Remgarajan

C.Raghuram Rajan

D.V.K.R.V.Rao

3.The structure of Indian Finance System does not include

A.Industrial finance

B.Agricultural finance

C.Development finance

D.Deficit finance

4. Industry which is reserved for public sector in new economic policy is

5. Agricultural unemployment may be classified into

6. National population policy adopted in 2000 with a view to encourage _________ and aim at stabilizing the population by _______ year

7. MGNREGS differs from other poverty alliviation measures in the following respects

I.It focuses on income generation to the targeted poor

II.It is built around the notions of citizenship and entitlement

III.It facilitates disclosure by means of regular and social audit

IV.It operates asper the directions of the State / Central Governments

8. Justice DP Wadhwa committee was appointed by the Supreme Court to examine _____

9. The Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) policy for fertilizers was implemented in India in

10. Which of the following is/are incorrectly matched? Select your answer according to the codes given below
I. Credit Creation - Reserve Bank of India
II. Commercial Bank - Adopting deposits
III. Reserve Bank of India - Control Credit
IV. Quantitative control - Scheduled Bank

11. Arrange the following sectors in India descending order according to the commercial energy consumption
1. Household sector 2. Agriculture 3. Industries 4. Transport

12. “Indradhanush” introduced by the Central Government in August 2015 aims at

Indian Polity

1. Assertion and Reason

Assertion (A) : The administrative reforms commission recommended Lokpal and Lokayukta

Reasoning(R) : These are for the redressal of citizens grievances

2. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

A.Article 153 - office of the Governor

B.Article 156 - Term of the Governor

C.Article 154 - Executive authority of Governor

D.Article 155 - Removal of Governor

3. Match List I with List II

a)   The Banking Companies ordinance    1.  1966

b)  Special Bearers Bonds ordinance  2.  1980

c)   Unlawful activities prevention ordinance  3.  1984

d)   Terrorist affected areas ordinance  4. 1981

4. Match the following - establishment of states and choose the correct one

a)  36th amendment   1.  Goa

b)  13th amendment  2.  Manipur and Tripura

c)   27th amendment  3.  Sikkim

d)   56th amendment   4. Nagaland

5. Article 25 of the Constitution of India guarantees which right

6. Which one of the following is not a formally prescribed device available to the members of parliament.

7. The National Coommission to review the working of the Constitution was set up in the year

8. Which one of the following amendments was called a revision of the constitution and it introduced changes in preamble, as many 53 articles and seventh schedule ?

9. Which one of following statement with regard to the enactment of the act of 1935 is wrong ?

A.Turko-Italian war

B.Rowlat act

C.Round table conference

D.Partition of Bengal

10. Which is/are correct

1. Part XV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Tribunals

2. Article 323 A deals with Administrative tribunals and 323 B deals with the tribunals for other matters

11. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is responsible for the audit of the accounts of

I. Union Govt

II.State Govts

III.Governments of Union territories

IV.Urban and rural local bodies

12. What is the peculiar nature of the Indian Federation ?

13. The Administrative Reforms Commission of India was set up on 5 Jan 1966 under the Chairmanship of

14. The Supreme Court in the Indian union has more power than other Supreme Courts in any part of the word - who said so ?

15.Which one of the following statement is/are true with regard to formulation of the government ?

16. Protection of Civil Rights Act came into force on

17. Which one of the following persons is the ex-officio chairman of the Rules Committee, General Purpose Committee and Business Advisory Committee ?

18. Which of the following are major features of constitutions of Lokpal and Lokayujta as recommeded by the Administrative Reforms commission ?
I.They should be demonstrably independent and impartial
II.They should compare with the highest judicial functionary in the country
III.Directly accountable to parliament

IV.Their appointments should as far as possible be non-political

19. The Indian Constitution describes legislative relations between Union and States in Article from
A. Articles 245 to 255 B. Articles 256 to 263
C. Articles 264 to 267 D. Articles 268 to 276

20. Match the list :
A. Fourth Schedule 1. Division of Powers
B. Seventh Schedule 2. Seats allotted in the council of states
C. Eleventh Schedule 3. Languages
D. Eight Schedule 4. 73rd

21. Which of the following recommendations. Are made by the Administrative Reforms Commission to improve relations between the political and permanent executive?
1. Minister should try to develop a climate of fearless and fair play among senior officers.
2. Minister should not intervene in day-to-day administration except incase of servous maladministration.
3. The official relationship of Secretary to Minister should be one of confidence of that of minister to Secretary one of loyalty.
4. Prime Minister Should takes special interest to arrest/growing of unhealthy personal affiliations.
5. All major decisions should be briefly reduced to writings

22. In which one of the case, “Passport” is considered as part of personal liberty?

23. Which of the schedules deals with division of powers between states and union?

24. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than One-Half of the states?

25. The Secession of a state from the Indian union has been bared by the

Geography

1.Match the List I with list II and select the correct answer :

a) Chennai is warmer than Kolkata  1. Distance from sea

b)Snowfall in Himalayas                  2. Altitude

c)Rainfall decreases from west

bengal to punchab                            3. Western Disturbance

d)Winter Rainfall                             4. Latitude

2.Which of the following is not a planetary wind ?

History and Indian National Movement

3. A major diamond mining centre in Belgium is

4. Rank the given sols of India in descending order in terms of their area / extent

Red , Alluvial, Laterite, Black Soil

5. The planet which is known as the 'God of war'

6.The ice-crystal theory to explain precipitation was propounded by

7. In which of the following states of India, inland water transport is not important

8. Which kind of power accounts for the largest share of power generation in India ?

9. What is India's rank in the global production of milk in 2000-2011?

10. The place of India which does not have tropical evergreen forest is

11. Choose the correct answer from the given options.

I. Shompens is atribal inhabitant of Nicober Island

II. As per 2011 census, their population is 229

12. Which among the sanctuaries is not present in Tamilnadu ?

13. Choose the correct match :
P)Fault               1.  Stromboli
Q)Fold                2.  San-Andreas
R)Earthquake     3.  Himalayan Range

S) Volcano         4. Epicentre
5.Weathering
6.Exfoliation

14. The major temperature fluctuations in surface waters of the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean is called as

15. The phase of rapid growth of population in India falls

History & Indian National Movement

1. Match List I with List II correctly and select the answer

a)Santhal's Rebellion     1. 1923

b) Maplah Rebellion      2. 1929

c)Vizag Revolution       3. 1921

d)Bardoli Satyagragha  4. 1855

2. Match List I with List II of the following with suitable options

a)Kural         1. Rishabham

b)Thutham    2. Shadjam

c) Kaikilai     3.  Madhyamam

d) Vuzhai      4.  Gandharam

3.Match List I with List II of the following with suitable options

a)Brahmanas     1.  Forest Texts

b)Sama veda     2.  Guide Book for Priests

c)Aranyakas      3.  Ritual Texts

d)Yajur Veda     4.  Book of Chants

4. Pick out the wrong statement

A)Veerappa, the Zamindar of Koppal rose against the Nizam of hyderabad in 1819

B)Gadkaris were military classes who garrisoned Maratha forts

C)Chakra Bisoi was the khonds leader

D)Sindhu and kanhu were the leaders of the Kols

5. Match the following

a) Simon Commission                         1.  1928

b) Nehru Report                                   2.  1932

c)  Second Round Table Conference    3.  1927

d)  Communal Award                           4. 1931

6. Give the correct chronological order

I. Pitt's India Act

II.Minto-Morley Act

III.Regulating Act

IV.Montague - Chelmsford Act

7.Which of the following statements about Mother Teresa is / are true ?

I.She founded a new congregation named Missionaries of Charity

II.She did not accept the citizenship of India

III.She was awarded the Nobel Peace prize

IV.In 1929 AD, she came to Madras as a Missionary

8. Choose the correct sequence

I. Qutbuddin Aibak, Iltutmish, Raziya, Balban

II. Jahangir, Humayun, Akbar, Shahjahan

9.Match the following

a) Dupleix     1.  Nawab of Bengal

b) Anwar-ud-din   2.  British Admiral

c) Shuja-ud-daula   3.  French Governor

d) Polock   4. Nawab of Carnatic

10. Which of the following is/are not correct

Minto-Morley reforms of 1909 introduced

I. The system of direct election in provinces

II.The act did not enfranchise women

III.It introduced dyarchy in provinces

IV.Communal electorate was introduced

11. Who bestowed the title Sardar on Vallabhai Patel ?

12. During 1857 revolt which army remained loyal to the British ?

13. Identify the statement, which is not the cause for the failure of Quit India Movement

A. British Government arrested key leaders

B.Nehru and Rajaji disbelieved in direct action

C.Hindu Mahasabha and Muslim league supported the movement

D.British Government suppressed the movement

14. Consider the following statements :

Assertion : Scholars distinguished a culture midway between Palaeolithic and Neolithic called Mesolithic

Reason : The chief characteristics of mesolithic were the stone implements used were extremely small and made up of chalcedony and silicate instead of quartzite

15. Consider the following statements about pre-historic period

I. The technique of radio carbon dating is based on measuring the loss of carbon  n organic materials over a period of time

II.Another dating method is known as dendro-chronology

III.Palaeo Botany is the analysis of prehistoric plants

IV.Palaeography is the study of ancient writing

16. Identify the correct order of events of Muhammad-bin-Tughluq

Transfer of capital,Conquest of  Nagarkot, Reform of Token currency, Taxation of the Doab

17. Consider the following relating to Babur and select the true

I. The autobiography of Babur is 'Babur Namah'

II.It was originally written in Persian

18. In which Indian National congress session, Mahatma Gandhi was made its president

19. Match the List I with List II
A. Amrit Basaar Patrika 1. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Indian Mirror 2. Sisir Kumar Gosh
C. Voice of India 3. G. Varma
D. Advocate 4. N.N. Sen

20. Which Act is called as black Act by the Indians?

21. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The Indian National Movement reached its crescendo in the non-cooperation movement in 1920-22. It was in this context that there occurred resurgence of working class activity in the years 1920-22. The working class created its own organisation to defend its class rights.

Reason (R) : Lokamanya Tilak was one of the moving spirits in theformation of AICTU. AITCU was formed in 1920.

Indian Culture

1.In which Indian state the women except Brahmin and Bania community, terminate their marriage relationship through the custom called 'Chudi Pahanana' ?

2. Which among the following correctly matched ?
A.Kol - Madhya Pradesh
B.Chhutia - Nilgiris (Tamilnadu)
C.Kotas - Little Andaman

D.Jarawas - Assam

Tamilnadu General Knowledge

1. Who was know as the 'Father of Library Movement in Tamilnadu' ?

2. The Dravidian Mahajana Sabha was founded by

3. Identify the statement which is wrong

A. The modern method of writing with coma, semicolon, and full stop are the contribution of the missionaries

B.Robert De Nobili and Caldwell enriched Tamil Language

C.The missionaries introduced printing press

D.The missionaries spread the Gospel only through English language

4. Assertion and Reason

[R] The diet of the early Tamils was not very different from that of modern times. Ghee played a conspicious part in the diet of all, it fetched a high price

[A] Ghee was used freely both by vegetarian and non vegetarian Avur Mulankilar and Purattinai Nannaganar spoken of the use of ghee.

Current Affairs

1. Which Indian city has been declared as the cleanest city in the 'Swachh Bharat' ranking 2015 ?

A. Kochi

B.Thiruvananthapuram

C.Bengaluru

D.Mysuru

2. Who is the chairman of the 20th law commission of India ?

A.Justice Ajith Prakash Shah

B.Justice Srikrishna

C.Justice Katju

D.Justice K.Balakrishnan

3.Recently Union Government has decided to develop a city as spiritual capital of the country. Which among the following is this city ?

A.Ujjain

B.Varanasi

C.Nasik

D.Bodhgaya

4. India's largest telecom operator is

5.Sunhah Peace Prize was won by

6. Which gas has been recently discovered in planet mars ?

7.Which Indian Temple was awarded 'Award of Excellence' for conservation by UNESCO in the year 2015 in Bangkok ?

8.Government of Tamilnadu awards Dr.APJ Abdul Kalam award for a Tamilan for his/her contribution to

9.Identify from the name of the central government portal for students looking for educational loans.

10.Which of the following day is observed as the National Statistics day?

11.2020 Olympic games will be held at

12. Nobel Prize 2015 in Physics was given for the discovery of
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