1) JOHN WRITES A MEMO TO HIS EMPLOYEES. PUTTING HIS THOUGHTS ONTO PAPER IS AN EXAMPLE OF
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MGT 521 Final Exam
Rating A
1) John writes a memo to his employees. Putting his thoughts onto paper is an example of
A. communicating
B. messaging
C. encoding
D. cryptography
2) Chantel received an invitation to a web meeting that will take place at 3:00 p.m. She accepted the invitation. This is an example of
A. formal channels of communication
B. spontaneous communication
C. feedback as a function of communication
D. informal channels of communication
3) You are doing research on political issues and find that you are on a conservative leaning site. What type of source credibility issue is this?
A. Credentials
B. Impartiality
C. Currency
D. Style
4) When reviewing an educational math website, you find the author’s background is in English. What type of source credibility issue is this?
A. Credentials
B. Impartiality
C. Currency
D. Style
5) A famous ice cream manufacturer sent workers to a nearby grocery store to offer shoppers a sample of its new flavor. The workers provided samples to 300 shoppers and noted that 80% of the sample population stated they liked the flavor. Based on this scenario, which of the following is an example of an inference?
A. Workers provided samples to 300 shoppers.
B. 20 percent of the sample population did not like the new flavor or were indifferent.
C. The ice cream manufacturer began producing the new ice cream flavor and offered it in stores.
D. The workers were offering samples to see if the general public liked the new flavor.
6) Persuading or convincing others to accept your argument means the reasoning must be logical. Which of the following is an example of logical flaws or fallacies?
A. Opposing views are considered
B. Hasty Generalization
C. Argument presents alternative explanations
D. Reasoning from specific evidence
7) What is the best way for the CEO to deal with managers in key positions who continue to resist a major change?
A. Minimize their interactions with fellow employees and work around them
B. Replace them with people who will support the change
C. Give them space and hope they will come to see why the change was necessary
D. Keep increasing the pressure on them to support the change
8) Finding a win-win solution that allows parties who are involved to have their goals achieved is an example of
A. accommodation
B. collaboration
C. team building
D. compromising
9) What is emphasized more in ethical leadership theories than in transformational leadership?
A. Leader values
B. Leader behaviors
C. Leader skills
D. Leader traits
10) Ethical behavior and integrity for a leader is most likely to result in
A. higher unit performance
B. higher performance ratings for the leader by bosses
C. higher subordinate satisfaction and trust
D. less stress for the leader
11) A common characteristic of most entrepreneurs is that they
A. accept the risks involved in starting and managing a business
B. have a high level of scientific and technical expertise
C. possess a great deal of personal wealth
D. have experience in running large, complex organizations
12) In order to make an intelligent investment decision, entrepreneurs should
A. limit their options to those business investments that are backed by the U.S. government
B. invest in businesses that have generated a stable rate of profit for at least the past ten years
C. invest only in business opportunities where it is possible to take an active role in management
D. compare the risks of potential investments to their expected profits and find the right balance between profit and risk
13) The customers, employees, stockholders, suppliers, creditors, and others who stand to gain or lose by the policies and activities of a business represent the firm’s
A. market makers
B. economic environment
C. stakeholders
D. social mentors
14) When a firm makes use of the SWOT analysis, one of its objectives is to
A. identify the best employees to fill each position within the organization
B. set specific short-term performance standards for each department
C. evaluate the desirability of issuing stocks or bonds in the current financial climate
D. identify the things it does well as an organization and the things it needs to improve
15) The process of rating an organization’s practices, processes, and products against the best of the world is known as
A. webworking
B. outsourcing
C. benchmarking
D. core competencies
16) Companies benefit today by inter-firm cooperation. One of the ways they cooperate is through networking. Another way is by seeking technological knowledge and learning new processes from other firms that usually fall outside of their respective industries. We call this
A. competency capturing
B. technology swapping
C. benchmarking
D. broadening the knowledge base
17) An important difference between accounting and other business functions, such as marketing and management, is that
A. accounting functions must be performed by an “outsider” (rather than by an employee of the business) in order to avoid conflicts of interest
B. accounting offers us insight into whether the business is financially sound
C. accounting involves mainly clerical activities and thus requires very little analysis
D. accounting deals exclusively with numbers
18) Although accounting has several specific uses, the overall purpose of accounting can be summarized as
A. to provide financial information that is useful to decision makers
B. to meet the legal requirements of the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB)
C. to allow the government to track business activity levels
D. to compute the profit or loss and declared dividend of a business firm
19) An important advantage that knowledge technology has over older versions of business technology is that it
A. is much cheaper to incorporate into most business operations
B. delivers timely information directly to the people who need it
C. allows businesses to locate anywhere and still reach their customers
D. eliminates the need for business to store information electronically
20) First Engineering, a large U.S. based mechanical engineering firm, is considering entering the global market. Upon careful analysis of the global market, they will find that global trade
A. opportunities are diminishing
B. is dominated by emerging, developing countries
C. is likely to be severely restricted in the future by nontariff trade barriers
D. is big business today and is expected to be more important in the future
21) The process of setting up individual functional units of the business to do specialized tasks is called
A. departmentalization
B. division of labor
C. job specialization
D. delegation of authority
22) The proven success of job specialization lies in the fact that
A. it leads to groupthink
B. it avoids the pitfalls of division of labor, where workers become removed from thinking conceptually about the business
C. it is a detractor to others who are thinking about entering your industry because it successfully creates barriers to entry
D. it adds efficiency to the business’s operation by identifying tasks that some do better than others
23) Economics is the study of how a society
A. invests wisely in the stock market
B. employs resources to produce goods and services and distribute them among competing groups and individuals
C. employs statistical techniques to make predictions about the evolution of society over the long run
D. governs itself for the good of its citizens
24) How is it that people working in their own self-interest produce goods, services, and wealth for others?
A. By taking advantage of a vast supply of labor, people working in their own self-interest could hire others at very low wages.
B. In order to earn money and produce goods that improve lives, self-directed gain would provide jobs, and subsequently wages for others.
C. The government pays entrepreneurs in the United States to produce goods, services, and wealth for others.
D. Entrepreneurs tend to include themselves in a group of people who need charitable support. A portion of the entrepreneur’s profit (as required by law) goes to the charity of one’s choice to support the less fortunate.
25) The ultimate resource of a firm is its
A. business plan
B. marketing mix
C. capital budget
D. employees
26) Today, human resource management has become so important that in many firms it has become
A. a function performed by managers in all areas of the organization
B. the main responsibility of the firm’s legal staff
C. a function handled only by specialists in the human resource department
D. function handled only by the firm’s top management
27) Which of the following is included in performing a business analysis?
A. Hiring new employees
B. Entering global markets
C. Conducting a SWOT analysis
D. Networking
28) When the competition is intense and the environment is changing rapidly, it is especially important to
A. maintain a high level of external monitoring
B. have detailed plans and operating procedures
C. increase the power of the chief executive
D. strengthen the organization culture
29) Which of the following would be a concern addressed in a strategic plan?
A. Which specific jobs should be assigned to each employee?
B. How much output should be produced this week in a given production facility?
C. Which computer software package should the firm’s human resources office use to manage the payroll?
D. Should the firm make a long-term commitment to expand into new markets?
30) Tactical planning is concerned with
A. determining the best way to cope with an emergency situation
B. devising temporary courses of action to be used if the primary plans do not achieve the desired results
C. developing detailed strategies about what is to be done, who is to do it, and how it is to be done
D. setting long run goals that will govern the general course of the organization for years
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PSYCHOLOGY PREPARE A 1,050 WORD PAPER IN WHICH YOU EXAMINE THE CONCEPT OF THE SELF. ADDRESS THE FOLLOWING ITEMS: DEFINE THE CONCEPT OF THE SELF IN THE SOCIAL WORLD.
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Psychology
Prepare a 1,050 word paper in which you examine the concept of the self. Address the following items:
Define the concept of the self in the social world.
Apply the self to your life, including self-concept, self-esteem, and self-efficacy.
Describe at least two social experiences that affected your personal development.
Include at least two references in your paper.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
Paper has to be Original work !
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LEADERSHIP SELECT AN ARTICLE THAT DISCUSSES A LEADERSHIP TOPIC WE HAVE ADDRESSED THIS SEMESTER AND COMPOSE A 4 PAGE PAPER (ONE INCH MARGINS, 12 POINT FONT, DOUBLE-SPACED).
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leadership
Select an article that discusses a leadership topic we have addressed this semester and compose a 4 page paper (one inch margins, 12 point font, double-spaced). The article needs to come from a business-related source such as the Wall Street Journal, Fortune, Forbes, Kansas City Business Journal, Bloomberg, CNBC’s website, etc. Students can’t use an article posted on the course’s Blackboard Web Resources area. The assignment has two parts:
1) Summarize the article (2 pages); and 2) Three lessons you learned about leadership from the article (2 pages).
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WRITE A 700- TO 1,050-WORD PAPER ON THE INTERACTION AMONG LEADERS’ SOURCES OF POWER, MOTIVES, AND INFLUENCE TACTICS ACCORDING TO THE FOLLOWING CRITERIA:
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Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper on the interaction among leaders’ sources of power, motives, and influence tactics according to the following criteria:
Write a 700- to 1,050-word paper on the interaction among leaders’ sources of power, motives, and influence tactics according to the following criteria:
•Describe power and explain how it relates to leadership.
•Describe the various types of power.
•Describe the relationship between influence and power.
Cite a minimum of three references other than the text and the article.
Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.
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RATING A 1) BIG FIZZ CO.,A MANUFACTURER OF COLA-FLAVORED DRINKS, WANTS TO ADD PACKAGED FRUIT JUICES TO ITS EXISTING PRODUCT LINE. BIG FIZZ MUST MAKE SOME DECISIONS REGARDING PACKAGING AND BRANDING THE FRUIT JUICES. THESE DECISIONS WOULD FALL UNDER WHICH VARIABLE OF THE MARKETING MIX?
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MKT 421 Final Exam
MKT 421 Final Exam
Rating A
1) Big Fizz Co.,a manufacturer of cola-flavored drinks, wants to add packaged fruit juices to its existing product line. Big Fizz must make some decisions regarding packaging and branding the fruit juices. These decisions would fall under which variable of the marketing mix?
A. Product
B. Place
C. Promotion
D. Price
2) Hewlett-Packard sells personal computers through specialty computer stores, electronics superstores, and its own Internet site. What is the marketing mix variable that is being considered here?
A. Price
B. Promotion
C. Product
D. Place
3) Marketing strategy planners should recognize that
A. target markets should not be large and spread out
B. mass marketing is often very effective and desirable
C. large firms like General Electric, Target, and Procter & Gamble are too large to aim at clearly defined markets
D. target marketing is not limited to small market segments
4) Target marketing, in contrast to mass marketing,
A. is limited to small market segments
B. assumes that all customers are basically the same
C. ignores markets that are large and spread out
D. focuses on fairly homogeneous market segments
5) The process of naming broad product-markets and then dividing them in order to select target markets and develop suitable
A. market penetration
B. market segmentation
C. market development
D. market research
6) ______________ is the process of naming broad product-markets and then segmenting these broad product-markets in order to select target markets and develop suitable marketing mixes.
A. Market positioning
B. Market segmentation
C. Mass marketing
D. Diversification
7) Marketing research which seeks structured responses that can be summarized is called
A. focus group research
B. quantitative research
C. qualitative research
D. situation analysis research
8) One of the major disadvantages of the focus group interview approach is that
A. ideas generated by the group cannot be tested later with other research
B. it is difficult to measure the results objectively
C. it is difficult to get in-depth information about the research topic
D. there is no interviewer, so the research questions may not be answered
9) When focus group interviews are used in marketing,
A. each person in the group answers the same questionnaire, to focus the discussion
B. the typical group size is 15 to 20 typical consumers whether online or off-line
C. it is primarily as a follow-up to more quantitative research
D. the research conclusions will vary depending on who watches the interview whether online or off-line
10) Focus groups
A. are usually composed of 10 to 15 people as participants
B. yield results that are largely dependent on the viewpoint of the researcher
C. always do a good job of representing the broader target market
D. have a low cost per participant
11) A small manufacturing firm has just experienced a rapid drop in sales. The marketing manager thinks that he knows what the problem is and has been carefully analyzing secondary data to check his thinking. His next step should be to
A. conduct an experiment
B. develop a formal research project to gather primary data
C. conduct informal discussion with outsiders, including intermediaries, to see if he has correctly defined the problem
D. develop a hypothesis and predict the future behavior of sales
12) The marketing manager at Massimino & McCarthy, a chain of retail stores that sells men’s clothing, is reviewing marketing research data to try to determine if changes in marketing strategy are needed. Which of the following sources of data would be a secondary data source?
A. Looking through the company’s marketing information system to see past sales trends
B. Reviewing videotapes of a recent focus group
C. Making phone calls to some of the best customers to learn their interest in a new line of clothing
D. Spending time in stores observing customers’ behavior
13) Which of the following statements about consumer products is true?
A. Convenience products are those that customers want to buy at the lowest possible price.
B. Shopping products are those products for which customers usually want to use routinized buying behavior.
C. Specialty products are those that customers usually are least willing to search for.
D. Unsought products are not shopped for at all.
14) The attitudes and behavior patterns of consumers making a purchasing decision are part of the
A. political environment
B. social and cultural environment
C. competitive environment
D. firm’s resources and objectives
15) The observing method in marketing research
A. uses personal interviews
B. may require customers to change their normal shopping behavior
C. is used to gather data without consumers being influenced by the process
D. is not suitable for obtaining primary data
16) The first step in market segmentation should be
A. deciding what new product you could develop
B. evaluating what segments you currently serve
C. finding a demographic group likely to use your products
D. defining some broad product-markets where you may be able to operate profitably
17) The product life cycle
A. describes the stages a new product idea goes through from beginning to end
B. has three major stages
C. applies to categories or types of products as opposed to brands
D. shows that sales and profits tend to move together over time
18) Which of the following is one of the product life cycle stages?
A. Market analysis
B. Market growth
C. Market feedback
D. Market research
19) While watching a television program, Liza gets a phone call just as a commercial is starting. She presses the mute button on the television’s remote control and takes the call, so she pays no attention to the commercial. In terms of the communication process, the telephone call is an example of what?
A. Encoding
B. Noise
C. Decoding
D. Feedback
20) Which of the following functions are performed by wholesalers in the channel of distribution?
A. Providing information to retailers
B. Placing radio advertisements for retailers
C. Placing newspaper advertisements for retailers
D. Providing goals for retailers
21) Typically the ______________ and the marketing manager are responsible for building good distribution channels and implementing place policies.
A. public relations manager
B. sales manager
C. advertising manager
D. human resources manager
22) SGCA is having a sales contest to encourage retailers to quickly reduce the inventory of SuperGamer computers. Retailers with the highest sales during the next month win an expense paid trip to a special dealer meeting at a resort in Hawaii. This is
A. probably illegal because it might encourage price competition among retailers
B. an example of cooperative advertising
C. the type of promotion that continues to impact sales even after the promotion is over
D. an example of a manufacturer using trade sales promotion in the channel
23) Advertising allowances
A. are incentive monies given to firms further along in the channel to encourage them to advertise or otherwise promote the firm’s products
B. involve intermediaries and producers sharing in the cost of ads
C. allow for coordination and integration of ad messages in the channel
D. set the allowance amount as a percent of the retailer’s actual purchases
24) Price reductions given to channel members to encourage them to promote or otherwise promote a firm’s products locally are
A. quantity discounts
B. brokerage allowances
C. push money allowances
D. advertising allowances
25) A producer using very aggressive promotion to get final consumers to ask intermediaries for a new product has
A. a pulling policy
B. a target marketing policy
C. a selective distribution policy
D. a pushing policy
26) Nantucket Hammocks, Inc., uses dealer incentives, discounts, and sales contests in order to encourage retailers to give special attention to selling its products. Nantucket Hammocks is using
A. exclusive distribution
B. a corporate channel system
C. dual distribution
D. pushing
27) Quality Ceramic, Inc., (QCI) defined five submarkets within its broad product-market. To obtain some economies of scale, QCI decided NOT to offer each of the submarkets a different marketing mix. Instead, it selected two submarkets whose needs are fairly similar, and is counting on promotion and minor product differences to make its one basic marketing mix appeal to both submarkets. QCI is using the
A. combined target market approach
B. single target market approach
C. multiple target market approach
D. mass marketing approach
28) When segmenting broad product-markets, cost considerations tend
A. to encourage managers to disregard the criterion that a product-market segment should be substantial
B. to lead to more aggregating
C. to be unimportant as long as the segmenting dimensions are operational
D. to lead to a large number of small, but very homogeneous, product-market segments
29) ______________ focuses on introducing new products to existing markets.
A. Market development
B. Product development
C. Diversification
D. Market penetration
30) When a company grows globally by introducing existing product lines to new markets, this is an example of what?
A. Market development
B. Product development
C. Diversification
D. Market penetration
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1) WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS MOST CLOSELY ASSOCIATED WITH A PROACTIVE MARKETING ORIENTATION?
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MKT 571 Final Exam
MKT 571 Final Exam
Rating A
1) Which of the following is most closely associated with a proactive marketing orientation?
A. It involves delivering superior value.
B. It is about understanding and meeting customers’ expressed needs.
C. It represents the “make and sell” philosophy.
D. The marketer focuses on the customers’ latent or hidden needs.
2) Marketing __________ is the art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping, and growing customers through creating, delivering, and communicating superior customer value.
A. internally
B. management
C. segmentation
D. integration
3) Business buyers ______________.
A. are geographically as diverse as consumers
B. tend to be geographically concentrated with over half of them in seven states
C. are largely concentrated in the southwestern United States
D. use geographical dispersion to keep shipping costs low
4) Toyota, the maker of the Scion brand, is using what kind of brand strategy with Scion products?
A. Separate family names
B. Blanket family names
C. Individual names
D. Corporate names
5) BMW, the maker of the Mini Cooper brand, is using what kind of brand strategy with its Mini products?
A. Individual names
B. Blanket family names
C. Separate family names
D. Corporate names
6) Brands can play a number of specific roles within a company’s brand portfolio. For example, a __________ is positioned with respect to competitors’ brands so that more important and profitable brands retain their desired positioning.
A. cash cow
B. low-end, entry level brand
C. high-end, prestige brand
D. flanker
7) When Apple introduced its popular iPod Nano model, it dropped its Mini iPod at the same time. The Mini was, at the time, the most popular MP3 player in the marketplace. This is an example of __________.
A. brand extension
B. preemptive cannibalization
C. a brand shake-out
D. product maturity
8) A ___________ is when a parent brand is used on a new product targeting a new market segment within a category currently served by the parent.
A. joint-venture co-brand
B. same company co-brand
C. category extension
D. line extension
9) ___________ are formal statements of expected product performance by the manufacturer.
A. Open pricing statements
B. Promotional statements
C. Warranties
D. General guarantees
10) Mazda’s Miata convertible originally drew the most interest from women between the ages of 35 and 55. In order to interest more potential customers in the roadster, Mazda beefed up the model with heavier shocks and a faster engine, and then emphasized performance in its advertising. This is an example of creating a new product by ____________.
A. repositioning
B. the development of a new product line
C. market diversification strategy
D. product development strategy
11) When SAP software added a Windows-style “back” button to its industrial invoice management software, the new product ___________.
A. used a new product line
B. added to an existing product line
C. improved upon an existing product
D. used a marketing diversification strategy
12) In 2003, Toyota introduced its Scion brand with the aim of bringing younger buyers into the “family.” This was a classic example of _________________.
A. line featuring
B. line cannibalization
C. line padding
D. line stretching
13) Painting and consulting are considered industrial goods because ______________.
A. they are specialty goods
B. they are considered “component materials”
C. most firms do not seek them directly
D. they facilitate developing and managing the finished product
14) Marketers plan their market offerings at five levels. What is the correct order of the levels, going from most fundamental to the level with the most benefits?
A. Basic-expected-augmented-core-potential
B. Expected-potential-basic-augmented-core
C. Core-basic-expected-augmented-potential
D. Potential-augmented-expected-core-basic
15) Characteristics a buyer can evaluate before purchase are called _______________.
A. search qualities
B. experience qualities
C. credence qualities
D. differentiation qualities
16) For $15 a day, Chlena will go to your home and feed, water, and play with your pet while you are on vacation. The service Chlena provides is an example of a _____________.
A. tangible good with accompanying service
B. hybrid
C. pure service
D. major service with accompanying minor goods and services
17) Mr. Tse and his family took a vacation to Washington, D.C. While there, they bought souvenirs; t-shirts and hats to take home to family and friends who didn’t have the opportunity to go. The experience of the Tse family is an example of which offering?
A. A tangible good with accompanying services
B. A hybrid
C. A pure service
D. A major service with accompanying minor goods and services
18) Best Buy will often try to sell the buyer of a high-end television monitor an extended warranty. This is an example of _______________.
A. pure tangible good
B. tangible good with accompanying services
C. hybrid
D. pure service
19) The introduction of a new product to the market using market-penetration pricing is most likely to be successful when _____________.
A. the unit costs of producing a small volume of the product are high
B. there must be no existing demand for the product
C. the market is highly price sensitive
D. the high price communicates nothing to potential buyers
20) A __________ pricing objective is suitable for a company that has overcapacity, intense competition, and changing customer needs.
A. maximum current profit
B. survival
C. maximum current revenue
D. maximum sales growth
21) Scotty is in the process of opening Suburban Legends SK8S to sell boards, wheels, trucks, clothing, videos, and skateboarding related collectibles. The first thing Scotty should do when setting the store’s prices is to ____________.
A. estimate costs
B. determine the target market
C. select a pricing method
D. select a pricing objective
22) A common mistake in pricing is ____________________.
A. revising prices too often
B. considering price and price competition as a key problem in marketing
C. ignoring costs when setting prices
D. setting prices independently of the rest of the market mix
23) When customers buy on the basis of a reference price or because the price conveys a particular quality image to them, they are being influenced by ____________.
A. value pricing
B. the psychology of pricing
C. the going rates of competitors
D. value augmented by perception
24) Which of the following areas will a marketing manager standardize or adapt when taking a new product global?
A. Marketing concept
B. Marketing mix
C. Product strategy
D. Promotion strategy
25) Which of the following best describes integrated marketing communication (IMC)?
A. Organizations present a consistent message.
B. Organizations present an effective communication plan.
C. Organizations present a plan that focuses on the customer.
D. Organizations present an effective advertising message.
26) Which of the following best describes the role of social responsibility in marketing?
A. Standards that guide marketing decisions and actions
B. Improving environment and products
C. Obligation to improve positive effects on society
D. Obligation to improve positive effects and reduce negative effects on society
27) Public policy makers have developed a substantial body of laws and regulations to govern advertising. For these reasons, an important step in developing an advertising campaign is _____________.
A. asking network censors what to cut out of the communication
B. the creative development of the message
C. the social responsibility review
D. preparing a copy strategy statement
28) Within the last couple years several cosmetics manufacturers have introduced non-clumping mascara. Revlon was one of these manufacturers. Revlon should use ________ advertising to increase selective demand for its non-clumping mascara.
A. descriptive
B. persuasive
C. reminder
D. informative
29) Hospitals are engaged in intense competition to fill maternity beds. What type of advertising would hospitals most likely use to advertise their new amenities like hot tubs in every room, filet mignon or lobster on the menu, and afternoon teas for the new mothers and their families?
A. descriptive
B. persuasive
C. reminder
D. informative
30) _____________ is the key ingredient in marketing campaigns and consists of a diverse collection of short-term incentive tools designed to influence trial, purchase, and interests of consumers and wholesalers.
A. Advertising
B. Public relations
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
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LEADERSHIP SELECT AN ARTICLE THAT DISCUSSES A LEADERSHIP TOPIC WE HAVE ADDRESSED THIS SEMESTER AND COMPOSE A 4 PAGE PAPER (ONE INCH MARGINS, 12 POINT FONT, DOUBLE-SPACED).
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leadership
Select an article that discusses a leadership topic we have addressed this semester and compose a 4 page paper (one inch margins, 12 point font, double-spaced). The article needs to come from a business-related source such as the Wall Street Journal, Fortune, Forbes, Kansas City Business Journal, Bloomberg, CNBC’s website, etc. Students can’t use an article posted on the course’s Blackboard Web Resources area. The assignment has two parts:
1) Summarize the article (2 pages); and 2) Three lessons you learned about leadership from the article (2 pages).
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PART B: USE THE FINANCIAL STATEMENTS IN THE TEXT TO DETERMINE THE FOLLOWING FOR JAEDEN INDUSTRIES.
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Finance Calculations Paper #1 (8-10 pages)
MUST be 100% plagiarism free.
MUST not contain any grammatical errors. I have GRAMMARLY, so please check your papers before submitting them to me.
MUST show all work for calculations.
MUST be 8 – 10 fully complete pages.
I WIL NOT ACCEPT LATE PAPERS FROM YOU.
I will dispute if you do not keep your side of the handshake.
Read this posted homework description before asking to complete this homework. If you start this paper and decide that you can’t finish this paper, I will dispute, blast your star score, and give you a harsh review.
Go to the following site.
https://books.google.com/books?isbn=0324782918
Go to the bottom of page 63 and read the “Mini-Case: Financial Statement and Cash Flow Analysis” (Page 63 – 65). Read this mini-case and then write an 8-10 page report that responds to the following:
Part A:
Write an introduction.
Part B:
Use the financial statements in the text to determine the following for Jaeden Industries.
1. Calculate Jaedan’s free cash flow. (Show all calculations (as in show all work).)
2. Calculate Jaedan’s liquidity. (Show all calculations (as in show all work).)
3. Calculate Jaedan’s debt and profitability ratios. (Show all calculations (as in show all work).)
4. Calculate Jaedan’s market ratios. (Show all calculations (as in show all work).)
Part C:
Based on your analysis:
5. Highlight at least four (4) financial strengths and four (4) weaknesses Jaeden Industries may have. Discuss each of these strengths and weaknesses.
6. Provide recommendations along with rationale on how Jaeden’s management may improve upon these weaknesses.
Part D:
Write a conclusion.
The format of the report is to be as follows:
o Typed, double spaced, Times New Roman font (size 12), one inch margins on all sides, APA format.
o Use headers for each of the subjects being covered, followed by your response.
o If you include any references, make sure they are direct quotes. Please include all references on a reference page, and make sure you can find them in the text by using in-text citations.
NOTE: You will be graded on the quality of your answers, the logic/organization of the report, your language skills, and your writing skills.
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1.IS WHEN THE ACTIVITIES IN THE STAGE MUST STOP BECAUSE THERE IS NO PLACE TO DEPOSIT THE ITEM JUST COMPLETED
APRIL 23, 2015 WRITER1
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OPS 571 Final Exam
OPS 571 Final Exam
Rating A
1.is when the activities in the stage must stop because there is no place to deposit the item just completed
A. Buffering
B. Blocking
C. Starving
D. Pacing
2) According to your text, the most common process metric is
A. productivity
B. efficiency
C. utilization
D. throughput time
3) Declining product prices
A. increase the manufacturing costs
! B. lower the break-point
C. result in lower manufacturing costs
D. increase the break-even point
4) The type of processing structure that is used for producing discrete products at a controlled rate is
A. job shop
B. batch
C. assembly line
D. project
5) The best process flow structure to use for making automobiles is
A. job shop
B. batch shop
C. group technology cell
D. assembly line
6) The break-even analysis is a standard approach to determine alternative processes A break-even analysis chart usually present alternative __________ and __________ based upon the units produced or sold
A. demand, supply
B. profits, losses
C. equipment, materials
D. variable, fixed costs
7) A statistical term that refers to the philosophy and methods companies use to eliminate defects in their products and processes by establishing a quality goal of no more than four defects out of every million units is
A. ISO 9000
B. Six Sigma
C. Total Quality Management
D. SERVQUAL
8) Independent demand is:
A. inventory where demand comes from independent suppliers
B. inventory that is independent of any known rules of demand and supply
C. demand that is related to the demand for another item
D. demand determined by the marketplace that requires forecasting
9) An inventory system designed to ensure that an item will be available on an ongoing basis throughout the year is known as
! A. Optional Replenishment System
B. Inventory Accuracy and Cycle Counting
C. ABC Inventory Planning
D. Multiperiod Inventory Systems
10) A/an __________ approach actually schedules in detail each resource using the setup and runtime required for each order
A. infinite loading
B. finite loading
C. forward scheduling
D. backward scheduling
11) What is the net result of reducing the duration of a task (crashing) not on the critical path?
A. Decreased project overhead costs
B. Reduced likelihood of liquidated damages for late delivery
C. Increased slack time associated with the task
!D. Reduction in the project duration
12) The idea of the value density calculation is
A. finding a carrier that can handle the weight
B. matching the weight of the product with an appropriate carrier
C. deciding where items should be stocked geographically and how they should be shipped
D. finding the minimum cost carrier
13) When designing a supply chain,
! A. cost vs customer service must be considered
B. quality vs cost must be considered
C. lead times vs payment terms must be considered
D. customer service vs product customization must be considered
14) According to Hau Lee, which of the following types of products need to be delivered with efficient supply-chains?
A. Custom products
B. Innovative products
C. Grocery products
D. High technology products
15) Which of the following product promotional activities would probably help make the supply chain more efficient?
A. Price promotions that expire on a specific date
B. An “everyday” low price strategy where prices are not dependent on quantity delivered with a specific order
C. Special packaging for a specific event that occurs one time each year
D. A 2-for-1 price promotion
16) The best operating level is
A. the maximum point of the cost curve
B. the level of capacity for which average unit cost is minimized
C. maximum capacity
D. the level of capacity for which total cost is minimized
17) Capacity utilization rate can be computed as
A. Capacity used – best operating level
B. Capacity used x best operating level
C. Capacity used / best operating level
D. Capacity used + best operating level
18) The objective of __________ is to provide an approach for determining the overall capacity level of capital-intensive resources that best supports the company’s long-range competitive strategy
A. workforce management
B. management supervision
C. operations management
!D. strategic capacity planning
19) Lean production systems typically require
A. delivery of large lots at frequent intervals
B. buyer inspection of goods and materials
C. multiple sources from which to purchase
D. low inventory levels throughout production
20) Given that the previous forecast of 65 turned out to be four units less than the actual demand The next forecast is 66 What would be the value of alpha if the simple exponential smoothing forecast method is being used?
A. 002
B. 04
C. 004
D. 0.25
21) Linear regression sales forecasting techniques
A. work best when future sales are randomly distributed
B. will not work for declining sales
C. work best when sales are increasing
! D. will not work if future sales forecasts lie on a curve
22) What should the value of alpha be in an exponential smoothing forecast to be very responsive to recent demand?
A. Large
B. Small
C. Negative
D. Zero
23) Which of the following statements are true about time-series forecasting?
A. Time series analysis employs empirical data to forecast future events
B. Time series analysis is used to understand the system underlying and surrounding the item being forecast
C. Under time-series methods, demand is divided into the time-based components such as daily, weekly, etc
D. Time series methods are useful for long-range forecasts when the demand pattern is erratic
24) One option for altering the pattern of demand is
A. hiring employees
B. using overtime
C. carrying inventory
D. pricing
25) Aggregate planners balance
A. demand and costs
B. demand and inventories
C. demand and capacity
D. supply and inventories
26) Which of the following accurately describes a chase strategy?
A. The firm produces the same amount each day over the planning period and deals with the variations in demand through the use of inventory or overtime
B. The firm produces at the same level for several months, and then adjusts production to another level and produces at that level for several more months
C. The firm matches its production rate to meet demand by varying the size of its workforce as demand varies
D. The firm produces the same amount each day within the planning period and deals with variations in demand through the use of outsourcing partners
27) Which of the following reflects net material requirements:
A. gross requirements – scheduled receipts
B. gross requirements – projected available balance + scheduled receipts
! C. gross requirements – projected available balance – scheduled receipts
D. gross requirements – scheduled releases
28) Which MRP system input element specifies how many and when the firm plans to build each end item?
A. Inventory records file
B. Bills of material
C. Master production schedule
D. Capacity planning
29) Which of the following is true about MRP Systems?
A. Based on independent demand
B. Lot sizing is based on Economic Order Quantity
C. Demand pattern is random
D. Objective is to meet manufacturing needs
30) A Material Requirements Planning (MRP) is most valuable in industries where a number of products are made in batches using the same productive equipment and with companies involving
!A. fabrication
B. low number of units annually
C. complex, expensive products
D. assembly operations
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25 MULTIPLE CHOICE THE PATH AROUND A MAGNET IN WHICH THE LINES OF FORCE MOVE IS CALLED A MAGNETIC A. ZONE. B. FORCE. C. CIRCUIT. D. SPHERE.
APRIL 23, 2015 WRITER1
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25 multiple choice
The path around a magnet in which the lines of force move is called a magnetic A. zone. B. force. C. circuit. D. sphere.
2. How many ampere-turns of MMF is produced if a current of 6 A is applied through a winding of 100 turns of wire? A. 600 ampere-turns B. 106 ampere-turns C. 160 ampere-turns D. 16.67 ampere-turns
3. What is the amount of MMF generated by a 50-turn electromagnetic coil supplied by 12?VDC at a current of one ampere? A. 38 ampere-turns B. 600 ampere-turns C. 12 ampere-turns D. 50 ampere-turns
4. The center of a bar magnet where no magnetic force is present is called the A. pole. B. neutral line. C. keeper. D. axis.
5. When using Fleming’s left-hand rule or motor rule, the thumb points in the direction of A. the magnetic lines of force. B. coil windings. C. current flow. D. conductor motion.
6. How many ampere-turns of MMF is produced if a current of 2.2 A is applied through a winding of 200 turns of wire? A. 90.90 ampere-turns B. 440 ampere-turns C. 197.8 ampere-turns D. 220 ampere-turns
7. A magnetic circuit in which the lines of force pass through both magnetic and nonmagnetic materials is called a A. full magnetic circuit. B. complete magnetic circuit. C. closed magnetic circuit. D. compound magnetic circuit.
8. The value 100,000,000 Maxwells is equal to A. 1 Weber. B. 4 Webers. C. 100 Webers. D. 10 Webers.
9. If you dip a bar magnet into iron filings, the filings will stick to A. both poles of the magnet. B. only the north pole of the magnet. C. the whole magnet. D. only the south pole of the magnet.
10. In a solenoid, where is the magnetic field strongest? A. Outside the coil B. Inside the coil C. At the south pole D. At the north pole
11. What theory of current flow says that electric current flows from the positive side of the source, through the load, to the negative side of the source? A. Electron theory B. Static theory C. Conventional theory D. Magnetic theory
12. Which of the following illustrations shows a closed magnetic circuit? A. B. C. D.
13. As compared to iron, how much more resistance does a nonmagnetic material produce against magnetic lines of force? A. 20,000 times as much resistance B. 200 times as much resistance C. 20 times as much resistance D. 2,000 times as much resistance
14. How do lines of magnetic force travel? A. From the magnet’s south pole to its north pole B. From the magnet’s poles to its neutral line C. From the magnet’s north pole to its south pole D. From the magnet’s neutral line to its poles
15. A device that helps a horseshoe magnet retain its magnetism is called A. keeper. B. block. C. shunt. D. shorting bar.
16. Which of the following is a magnetic material? A. Glass B. Wood C. Paper D. Iron
17. Magnetic flux is pushed through a magnetic path by A. magnetomotive force. B. hysteresis. C. reluctance. D. electromotive force.
18. If you double the distance an object is away from a source of magnetism, how much loss will there be in magnetic flux? A. The flux will be one-half as strong. B. The flux will be one-eighth as strong. C. The flux will be one-quarter as strong. D. The flux will be one-fifth as strong.
19. How can you easily locate the north pole of an unmarked bar magnet? A. Sprinkle iron filings on the bar magnet. More filings will be attracted to the north pole. B. Place a compass near one end of the magnet. The north pole of the compass will be attracted to the north pole of the magnet. C. Place a compass near one end of the magnet. The south pole of the compass will be attracted to the north pole of the bar magnet. D. Cover the bar magnet with filings and lightly thump the magnet against a table. The south pole will retain more of the filings.
20. An artificial magnet made by pressing magnetic powder together under high pressure and temperature is called a A. semisteel magnet. B. powder core magnet. C. polyform magnet. D. rare earth magnet.
21. The opposition to magnetic flux as it flows through a magnetic circuit is A. permeability. B. hysteresis. C. resistance. D. reluctance.
22. What is a typical coil voltage for a low-voltage relay circuit? A. 2 VDC B. 5 VDC C. 120 VDC D. 12 VDC
23. The area of space around a magnet in which the lines of force flow is called the A. magnetic zone B. magnetic field C. magnetic flux D. magnetic sphere
24. What happens to a magnetic material when further application of MMF brings only a slight change in magnetism in the material? A. The material begins to lose its magnetic properties. B. The material is said to have low hysteresis. C. The material begins to heat rather than absorb more magnetism. D. The material is termed saturated.
25. Which of the following relative permeability values describes a vacuum? A. 1 B. 1,000 C. 50 D. 100
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