@DrVijay wrote:

Hello All,
These are the (new) daily MCQs from my
Facebook page from the past 12 months.
These are NOT included in the 7th or
(new) 8th edn of Sure Success MAGIC,
Since I am making it available online.
Please feel free to download and share.
I have also mentioned the highlights of the
new edn of Sure Success MAGIC in the
end of this PDF.....pls share your feedback
by messaging me on facebook.
All the Best
Laser used in Selecetive Laser
Trabeculoplasty is
A. Argon Laser
B. Excimer Laser
C. CO2 laser
D. Nd YAG laser
Ans.....D......NdYAG...asked in many
earlier state entrances and Jipmer also
SELECTIVE laser trabeculoplasty
(different from argon laser)
+ Uses 532 nm, frequency doubled, Qswitched
Nd YAG laser
+ NO scarring of trabecular meshwork
+ Repeatable
The 1-2-3 sign or Garland triad
classically seen in
A. Tuberculosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Amyloidosis
D. Bronchupulmonary aspergillosis
Garland's triad (also known as the 1-2-
3 sign or Pawnbrokers sign) is a lymph
node enlargement pattern described in
It comprises of:
right paratracheal nodes
right hilar nodes
left hilar nodes
Forensic taphonomy refers to
A. Identification of dead body
B. Postmortem changes
C. Autopsy in drowning cases
D. Tracking the path of gunshot
wound in body
Ans.......B.......Postmortem changes
Forensic taphonomy is the study of the
postmortem changes to human
remains, focusing largely on
environmental effects—including
decomposition in soil and water and
interaction with plants, insects, and
other animals
"Toll" in Toll like receptors (TLRs) are
homologs of which Toll protein ?
A. Drosophila
B. Penicillium
C. Aspergillus
D. Anopheles mosquito
Toll was shown to be an essential
receptor for host defense against
fungal infection in Drosophila, which
only has innate immunity
Decerebrate posturing falls into the
following grade on Glasgow Coma
Scale ?
Ans......M2...M3 – Abnormal flexion, i.e. decorticate
M2 – Extensor response, i.e.
decerebrate posturing
SMILE stands for _______ and is used
for ______
A. Small Incision lens Extraction;
Mature Hard Cataracts
B. Small incision Lenticule Extraction,
C. Small Incision Linear Excimer,
D. Small Incision Laser emulsification,
Mature Hard Cataracts
Ans......B.... SMall Incision Lenticule
Extraction, Myopia
Small incision lenticule extraction
(SMILE) results in similar or better
refractive outcomes compared with
LASIK for the treatment of myopia
COL4A5 mutation is a/w
A. GoodPasture syndrome
B. Lupus nephritis
C. Alport's syndrome
D. IgA nephropathy
Alport Syndrome is a progressive
renal disease with cochlear and ocular
The most common form (
approximately 80%) is inherited in an
X-linked pattern.
X-linked Alport Syndrome (XLAS) is
caused by mutations in the type IV
collagen alpha chain 5 (COL4A5).
All are tributaries of coronary sinus
A. Middle and small cardiac veins
B. Posterior vein of left ventricle
C. Oblique vein of left atrium (of
D. Venae cordi minimi
Ans.....D........Venae cordi minimi
The tributaries of coronary sinus are:
− Great, middle and small cardiac
− Posterior vein of left ventricle
− Oblique vein of left atrium (of
− Left marginal vein
Treatment of choice for Torsade des
pointes is
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Magnesium
D. Sodium bicarbonate
Intravenous magnesium is the drug of
choice for torsades de pointes.
Magnesium is effective even in
patients with normal magnesium
Drug used for treating Paroxysmal
Nocturnal hemoglobinuria is
A. Eculizumab
B. Idebenone
C. Ivadrabine
D. Nivolumab
Ans......A...... eculizumab
Eculizumab is a humanized
monoclonal antibody that is a first-inclass
terminal complement inhibitor
and approved for Rx of PNH and
atypical HUS.
PAIR is used for
a. Amebic liver abcscess
b. Hydatid cyst liver
c. Hemangioma Liver
d. Hepatocellular ca
Ans......B........Hydatid cyst liver
The Puncture Aspiration Injection
Reaspiration (PAIR) technique is
performed using either ultrasound or
CT guidance, involves aspiration of
the cyst contents via a special cannula,
followed by injection of a scolicidal
agent for at least 15 minutes, and then
reaspiration of the cystic contents. This
is repeated until the return is clear.
The cyst is then filled with isotonic
sodium chloride solution. Perioperative treatment with a
benzimidazole is mandatory (4 d prior
to the procedure and 1-3 mo after).
Which disease is called "the captain of
the men of death"
A. Ca Lung
B. Ca stomach
C. Ca Liver
D. Ca prostate
Ans......B......Ca stomach
Carcinoma of the stomach was termed
“Captain of the Men of Death” by
Lord Moynihan in the last century.
Sir William Osler, known as "the
father of modern medicine,"
appreciated the morbidity and
mortality of pneumonia, describing it
as the "captain of the men of death" in
1918, as it had overtaken tuberculosis
as one of the leading causes of death in
his time.
Globoid bodies are seen in
A. Pick disease
B. Parkinson's disease
C. Alzheimer's disease
D. Krabbe's disease
Ans....D....Krabbe's disease
1. Pick bodies: Pick disease.
2. Hirano bodies: Alzheimer disease
3. Bunina bodies: amyotropic lateral
4. Marinesco bodies: located chiefly in
melanin containing brain stem
neurons; no known pathologic
5. Lafora bodies: myoclonic epilepsy
Cabbage like odor to skin and urine is
seen in
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Maple syrup urine disease
C. Homocystinuria
D. Tyrosinemia
+ Cabbage like odor - tyrosinemia
+ Musty odor - PKU
+ Burnt sugar odor - maple syrup
urine disease
Recent AIIMS journal related question.
"AIIMS test" has been proposed to be
as good as Schaeffer's test.......
Schaeffer's test is used to identify the
tendon of
A. Flexor carpi ulnaris
B. Flexor carpi radialis longus
C. Palmaris longus
D. Extensor carpu ulnaris
Ans....C.........Palmaris Longus
The Palmaris longus, one of the most
variable muscles in the body both
flexes the wrist and tenses the palmar
fascia. It is used by surgeons as a
source of tendon graft
All are stigmata of cong. syphilis
a. olympian brow
b. mulberry molars
c. saber tibia
d. band shaped keratopathy
ns.......D.......Band shaped keratopathy
Classic stigmata iof cong syphilis
• Hutchinson’s teeth (centrally
notched, widely spaced, peg-shaped
upper central incisors)
• “Mulberry” molars (sixth-year
molars with multiple, poorly
developed cusps),
• Saddle nose, and
• Saber shins (Saber tibia)
• Rhagades: wrinkled radiating scars
around the mouth
• Olympian brow - prominent
forehead due to periostitis of frontal
Interstitial keratitis is a late manif of
cong syphilis.....
Which of the following words is
derived from the Latin/Greek word
for Crab?A. Tumor
B. Cancer
C. Fistula
D. Ulcer
The origin of the word cancer is
credited to the Greek physician
Hippocrates (460-370 BC), who is
considered the “Father of Medicine.”
Hippocrates used the terms carcinos
and carcinoma to
describe non-ulcer forming and ulcerforming
tumors. In Greek, these words
refer to a crab, most
likely applied to the disease because
the finger-like spreading projections
from a cancer called to
mind the shape of a crab. The Roman
physician, Celsus (28-50 BC), later
translated the Greek term
into cancer, the Latin word for crab.
Galen (130-200 AD), another Greek
physician, used the word
oncos (Greek for swelling) to describe
tumors. Although the crab analogy of
Hippocrates and
Celsus is still used to describe
malignant tumors, Galen’s term is
now used as a part of the name
for cancer specialists – oncologists.
Prominent superior ophthalmic vein
in MRI maybe seen in
A. cavernous hemangioma orbit
B. Capillary hemangioma orbit
C. Lymphangioma orbit
D. Carticocavernous fistula
Ans.....D...Carotico-cavernous fistula
Enlargement of the superior
ophthalmic vein (SOV), is considered a
sign of carotid-cavernous fistula best
seen on MRI.
Hyperkalemia is a feature in following
conditions EXCEPT
a) Insulin deficiency
b) Calcitonin Deficiency
c) Aldosterone deficiency
d) Severe Obesity
Ans......D....Severe obesity
"Severe obesity is a/w comorbidities
like hyperinsulinemia (type II DM)
and HTN which are a/w
HYPOkalemia; Also in sever obesity -
diuretics are used (either for reducing
the "swelling" or for HTN); as well as
repeated bouts of fasting, low-calorie
foods and bulimia may contribute to
DEPLETION of total body potassium
Calcitonin reduces renal tubular
reabsorption and consequently results
in an increase in the excretion of
calcium, potassium, magnesium,
phosphorus and sodium by the
kidneys". Hence it would follow that
calcitonin deficiency would result in
correct me if i'm wrong here. this was
a 2007 pg entrance qn.
Vocal cord laterlisation is which type
of thyroplasty?
Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4
Ans......Type 2
Vocal cord medialisation Type I
Vocal cord lateralization Type II
Which of the following has highest
malignant potential for oral cancer?
A. Leukoplakia
B. Oral submucus fibrosis
C. Oral lichen planus
D. Erythroplakia
Erythroplakia has 17 times higher
malignant potential than leukoplakia
Sideropenic dysphagia refers to
A. Brown Sequard syndrome
B. Iatrogenic esophageal perforation
C. Patterson kelly syndrome
D. Corkscrew esophagus
Ans.....C.....Patterson kelly syndromeThe association of postcricoid
dysphagia, upper esophageal webs,
and iron deficiency anemia is known
as Plummer-Vinson syndrome (PVS)
in the United States and PatersonBrown
Kelly syndrome in the United
The term sideropenic dysphagia has
also been used, since the syndrome
can occur with iron deficiency
In nearly 80% cases cardiac dominance
A. right dominant
B. left dominant
C. co-dominant
D. mixed dominance
Ans.....A.......right dominant
The artery that supplies the posterior
descending artery (PDA)[1] (a.k.a.
posterior interventricular artery)
determines the coronary dominance
+ If the posterior descending artery
(PDA) is supplied by the right
coronary artery (RCA), then the
coronary circulation can be classified
as "right-dominant".
+ If the posterior descending artery
(PDA) is supplied by the circumflex
artery (CX), a branch of the left artery,
then the coronary circulation can be
classified as "left-dominant".
+ If the posterior descending artery
(PDA) is supplied by both the right
coronary artery (RCA) and the
circumflex artery, then the coronary
circulation can be classified as "codominant".
Approximately 80% of the general
population are right-dominant.
Ross classified five stages of (MHCET
2015 Q)
A) Schizophrenia
B) Delusion
C) Death
D) None
In her 1969 book, On Death and
Dying, Swiss-born psychiatrist
Elizabeth Kubler-Ross outlined the
five stages of grief of someone who is
• D - Denial and isolation: "This is not
happening to me."
• A - Anger: "How dare God do this to
• B - Bargaining: "Just let me live to
see my son graduate."
• D - Depression: "I can't bear to face
going through this, putting my family
through this."
• A - Acceptance: "I'm ready, I don't
want to struggle anymore."
Serum Lithium level should be
checked earliest after how many days
of constant dosing ? (MHCET 2015 Q)
A) 3
B) 5
C) 14
D) 20
Ans.....B......5 days
Kaplan & Sadock's Concise Textbook
of Clinical Psychiatry, Pg 518, 3rd edn.
When obtaining blood for lithium
levels, patients should be at steady
state lithium dosing, (usually after 5
days of constant dosing) and the blood
sample must be drawn 12 hours after a
given dose.
Tavaborole is used for treating
A. Keratomycosis
B. Otomycosis
C. Vaginal mycosis
D. Onychomycosis
Tavaborole is a topical antifungal
medication for the treatment of onychomycosis, a fungal infection of
the nail and nail bed. It inhibits an
essential fungal enzyme, Leucyl-tRNA
synthetase, or LeuRS, required for
protein synthesis.
It is not for use in the eyes, mouth, or
Rundle's curve can be used to explain
which disease ?
A. Hodgkin's lymphoma
B. Thyroid Ophthalmopathy
C. Coronary Heart Disease
D. Type 1 DM
Ans....B..... Thyroid Ophthalmopathy
+ The natural history of Thyroid
Ophthalmopathy follows Rundle's
+ The initial phase usually of a few
months is associated with worseing of
the TED which reaches a plateau and
then spontaneously improves.
Which of the following maybe a/w
A. Erythema gyratum repens
B. Erythema annulare centrifugum
C. Erythema induratum of Bazin
D. Erythema ab igne
1. Erythema induratum of Bazin,
2. lichen scrofulosorum, and
3. papulonecrotic tuberculide
are the 3 recognized tuberculides,
which are sequelae of immunologic
reactions to hematogenously
dispersed antigenic components of
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Dhatura seeds resemble seeds of
a. calotropis
b. capsicum
c. ricinus
d. gelsimium
− Dhatura seeds resemble capsicum
seeds; BUT dhatura seeds are larger,
thicker and kidney shaped.
93. All of the following are health
promotion strategies EXCEPT
a) Chlorination of water
b) Paring of nails
c) Chemoprophylaxis
d) Lifestyle changes
94. The following are examples of
specific protection EXCEPT
a) Use of calipers for post polio
residual paralysis
b) Use of helmets
c) Vitamin A administration to
d) Use of goggles by welders
95. The severity of illness of a disease
is represented by
a) Attack rate
b) Proportional mortality rate
c) Case fatality rate
d) Cause specific mortality rate
96. A good measure of the virulence of
a disease is
a) Attack rate
b) Secondary attack rate
c) Incidence rate
d) Prevalence rate
Ans to yestday's set
1. Abacavir is a nucleoside
transcription inhibitor that carries
which side effect unique for HIV
antiretroviral agents?
A. Fanconi’s anemia
B. Granulocytopenia
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Severe hypersensitivity reaction
2. Indinavir is a protease inhibitor that
carries which side effect unique for
HIV antiretroviral agents?
A. Abnormal dreams
B. Benign hyperbilirubinemia
C. Hepatic necrosis in pregnant
D. Nephrolithiasis
Ans to yestdays qnsAbacavir - hypersensitivity
Indinavir - renal calculi -
Greenish color of bruise is due to
A. Hemoglobin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Bilirubin
D. Hematoidin
Also Know - Age of bruise
- At first - Red (oxyhemoglobin)
- Few hrs to 3 days - blue (reduced
- 4th day - bluish black (hemosiderin)
- 5-6 days - greenish (hematoidin)
- 7-12 days - yellow (bilirubin)
- 2 weeks - normal (absorption of
another set....
1. Acute infectious purpura fulminans
is caused by
a) Neisseria meningitidis and Varicélla
b) Gonococci
c) E. coli
d) Proteus
2. Waddling gait (sailor’s gait) is seen
a) Bilateral CTEV (Congenital Talipes
Equino Varus)
b) Bilateral CDH (Congenital
Dislocation of Hip)
c) Congenital genu recurvatum
d) Bilateral calcaneo-valgus deformity
3. Bernoulli’s principle could explain
a) Deviated nasal septum
b) Malignancy
c) Polyp formation
d) Nasal Allergy
4. Civatte bodies are seen in
a. Lichen sclerosus
b. Lichen planus
c. Lichen amyloidosis
d. Psoriasis
5. Lincoff’s rule is useful in diagnosing
a. Site of duodenal ulcer
b. Site of retinal detachment
c. Site of perforation of tympanic
d. Site of intestinal perforation
6. Sensitivity means ability to detect
a) True positive
b) False positive
c) True negative
d) False negative
7. Dohle bodies seen in neutrophils of
patients suffering from sepsis are
a) Golgi complexes
b) Toxic granules
c) Dilated endoplasmic reticulum
d) Degenerated mitochondria
Ans to yestday's set
1-A; 2-B; 3-C; 4-B; 5-B; 6-A; 7-C
Lincoff's rule for finding the site of
break in retinal detachment
Tache noire after death is seen in
a) eyes
b) face
c) dependent areas like elbows and
d) gastric mucosa
Tache noire, literally meaning “black
spot,” is a dark, reddish brown strip
that will form horizontally across the
eye ball. During life the eye balls are
kept moist by blinking, but sometimes
they are no longer protected upon
death. Therefore, tache noire will
occur in individuals whose eyelids are
not closed post mortem. Similarly,
other mucous membranes like the
tongue will darken after prolonged air
exposure to the normally moist tissue.
If the individual drowned, or the body
was found in water, the tache noire
would not be present. The eye balls
have to be exposed to air for it to occur
Open ring sign is relatively specific for
a. Space occupying lesionb. Intracranial hypertension
c. Demyelination
d. Intracranial abscess
Ans is c.......demyelination
The open ring sign (white matter
crescent sign) is a relatively specific
sign for demyelination, helpful in
distinguishing between ring
enhancing lesions. The enhancing
component is thought to represent
advancing front of demyelination and
thus favours the white matter side of
the lesion. The open part of the ring
will therefore usually point towards
the grey matter.
Also NOTE: McDonald's MRI criteria
are used for Multiple sclerosis
Cracked mud retina seen in
a. CMV retinitis
b. Acute retinal necrosis
c. Progressive outer retinal necrosis
d. Retinitis pigmentosa
Progressive outer retinal necrosis
(PORN), first described in 1990, is seen
in patients who are
immunocompromised (e.g., AIDS)
who present with rapid outer retinal
Multifocal lesions with deep retinal
opacification are characteristic of
About 30 percent of patients have
deep outer retinal lesions in the
macula, which become confluent to
form a cherry red spot. They
classically have a “cracked mud”
appearance where there is perivenular
clearing of the retinal opacification.
This fracture has been dubbed the
"unsolved fracture" for more than a
A. Fracture neck of femur
B. Fracture shaft of femur
C. Vertebral fracture
D. Fracture scaphoid
Displaced fracture of the intracapsular
proximal femur has been termed the
“unsolved fracture” because it is
unclear whether it should be treated
by internal fixation or by replacement
of the femoral head with an artificial
hip (arthroplasty)
Lorenzo's oil is used in (this is a true
question !!! in earlier exam)
A. Metahcormatic leukodystrophy
B. Adrenoleukodystrophy
C. Krabbe's disease
D. Gaucher's disease
Lorenzo’s oil is a combination of two
chemicals called erucic acid and oleic
acid.Lorenzo’s oil is used as a
treatment for two related inherited
conditions - adrenoleukodystrophy
(ALD), which occurs in children; and
adrenomyeloneuropathy, which
occurs in adults.
The oil is named after a child, Lorenzo
Odone, who developed ALD. His
parents discovered a mixture of fatty
acids that seemed to slow progression
of the disease. The mixture became
known as “Lorenzo’s oil. - ALSO a
movie of the same name based on this
true story was made in 1992 and that's
the picture I had posted.
These disorders cause accumulation of
very long-chain fatty acids(VLCFA) in
the blood and many other tissues.The
white matter of the brain, the Leydig
cells of the testes and the adrenal
cortex are the most severely affected
systems.The levels of VLCFA can be
normalized by treatment with
Lorenzo's oil, but this does not alter
the progression of the disease.
CURB-65 score is used for
a. Cannabis addiction
b. Pneumonia
c. Intestinal obstruction
d. Acute pancreatitis
CURB-65 Severity Score for
Community-Acquired Pneumonia:
Calculates the CURB-65 Score to
estimate pneumonia mortality to help determine inpatient vs. outpatient
BUN > 19 mg/dL (7 mmol/L) /
Respiratory Rate ≥ 30 /
Systolic BP < 90 mmHg or Diastolic BP
≤ 60 mmHg /
Age ≥ 65
The Pulvinar sign refers to T2
hyperintensity in the posterior
thalamic nuclei (the pulvinar). It is
classically described in
a. Arnold Chiari malformation
b. Parkinson disease
c. Creutzfelt Jakob disease
d. Alzheimer's disease
Ans ........C
The pulvinar sign refers to bilateral
FLAIR hyperintensities involving the
pulvinar thalamic nuclei. It is
classically described in variant
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD)
As per BIRADS known biopsy proven
malignancy is grouped under grade
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Ans to yestday's qn.....
BI-RADS = 'breast imaging reporting
and data system',
0- incomplete,
1- negative,
2-benign findings,
3-probably benign,
4-suspicious abnormality,
5-highly suspicious of malignancy,
6- with known biopsy proven
11. Gluten free diet is beneficial in:
A. Psoriasis
B. Exfoliative dermatitis
C. Dermatitis herpetiformis
D. Pemphigoid
12. Buford complex is a normal
anatomic variant of which joint?
A. Elbow
B. Shoulder
C. Knee
D. Hip
13. CAMP test is used to detect
infection caused by
a) Streptococcus equsimilis
b) Streptococcus agalactiae
c) Streptococcus viridans
d) Staphylococcus aureus
14. NIH Swab is used for the recovery
of the eggs of
a) Ancylostoma duodenale
b) Enterobius vermicularis
c) Ascaris lumbriocoides
d) Trichinella Spiralis
15. Kidney transplantation is an:
(a) Allograft
(b) Isograft
(c) Xenograft
(d) Syngeneic graft
Ans for yestday's set
Next set.......
1. A 14-year-old girl has a 1-day
history of pain in the right ear. She
swims every morning. The right ear
canal is red and swollen. She has pain
when the auricle is pulled or the
tragus is pushed. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute otitis media
B. Bullous myringitis
C. Chronic otitis media
D. External otitis
2. World health day is on
A. January 7
B. April 7
C. Dec 1
D. January 14
3. All are anti-VEGFs in treating
macular edema except
A. Bevacizumab
B. Ranibizumab
C. Adalimumab
D. Pagaptanib4. Which of the following is true about
lgG antibody?
a) Produced in primary immune
b) Cannot cross placenta
c) Provides local protection
d) Produced in secondary immune
5. Acclimatization does NOT include
a) Hyperventilation
b) Decreased concentration of 2,3 DPG
in RBC
c) Increased erythropoiesis
d) Kidney excrete more alkali
Ans for yestday's set
1-D; 2-B; 3-C; 4-D; 5-B
Next set........
1. NESTROFT test is for screening
C. Thalassemia
D. Carcinogenic potential
2. Skirrow’s medium is used for
A. Proteus
B. C. jejuni
C. H.influenzae
D. Mycpolasma
3. A 54-year-old man who is being
treated for hypertension and
hypercholesterolemia develops diffuse
muscle pain and weakness. His serum
creatine kinase activity is increased.
Which of the following drugs is most
likely to have caused this clinical
(A) Captopril
(B) Hydrochlorothiazide
(C) Lovastatin
(D) Nicotinic acid
4. STEPS program is for the following
A. Pneumococcal vaccine
B. Thalidomide
C. Streptomycin
D. Ethambutol
5. Vogt’s triad includes all except
A. Seizures
B. Mental retardation
C. Choroidal hemangioma
D. Adenoma sebaceum
Ans for previous set......
1-C; 2-B; 3-C; 4 –B. 5 -C
Next set..........
1. A 58-year-old female with
rheumatoid arthritis is treated with
infliximab for refractory disease. All
the following are potential side effects
of this treatment except
A. demyelinating disorders
B. disseminated tuberculosis
C. exacerbation of congestive heart
D. pulmonary fibrosis
2. What is the most common
extraarticular manifesta- tion of
ankylosing spondylitis?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Cataracts
D. Third-degree heart block
3. Which of the following joints are
typically spared in osteoarthritis
A. Ankle
B. Cervical spine
C. Distal interphalangeal joint
D. Hip
4. All the following organisms have
been implicated in reactive arthritis
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Shigella dysenteriae
E. Yersinia enterocolitica
Ans to previous set.........
1-D; 2-A; 3-A; 4-B
1. Coloboma of the lid is commonest
(a) Lateral half of the lower lid
(b) Medial half of the lower lid
(c) Medial half of the upper lid (d) Lateral half of the upper lid
2. Pulse oximeter works on the
following principle:
(a) Beer Lambart’s law
(b) Raman scattering effect
(c) Venturi principle
(d) Mass spectrometry
3. Amyl nitrate inhalation test is used
to detect:
(a) Carcinoma esophagus
(b) Achalasia cardia
(c) Oesophageal diverticulum
(d) Tracheoesophageal fistula
4. Hyperuricaemia is a side effect of
this anti- tubercular drug:
(a) Pyrazinamide
(b) Isoniazid
(c) Capreomycin
(d) Ethambutol
5. The bacteria producing a picture
resembling ‘pseudohaemoptysis’ in
sputum sample due to prodiogisin
production is:
(a) Serratia marcesens
(b) Erwinia herbicola
(c) Ehrlichiasennestsu
(d) Legionella pneumophila
ans to previous set
1-C; 2-A; 3-B; 4-A; 5-A
Next set..........
1 All are components of Quadruple
test except
A. Beta HCG
B. Maternal serum AFP
C. Nuchal transluceny
D. Inhibin A
2 Triple test is used in the diagnosis of
A. Turner’s syndrome
B. Down’ syndrome
C. Edward’s syndrome
D. Patau’s syndrome
3 Coarctation of aorta is a/w
A. Turner’s syndrome
B. Down’ syndrome
C. Edward’s syndrome
D. Patau’s syndrome
4. Cri du Chat syndrome is a/w
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
5. Quilty effects is seen in
A. Lung transplants
B. Cardiac transplants
C. Renal transplants
D. Skin grafting
Ans to yestday's set...........
1-C; 2-B; 3-A; 4-A; 5-B
Next set.............
1. Lucid interval is characteristic
pathognomonic feature of:
A. Extradural haemorrhage
B. Intracerebral haemorrhage
C. Tumour in the frontal lobe
D. Intracerebral abscess
2. Dietl’s crisis occurs in:
A. Hydronephrosis
B. Tuberculosis of kidney
C. Acute intussusception
D. Wandering spleen
3. Landmark study in the management
of postoperative endophthalmitis was
a. BRAVO study
b. ONTT study
c. EVS study
d. HEDS study
4. Submandibular gland surgery may
result in damage to the following
nerves, except:
A. Buccal branch of the facial nerve
B. Accessory nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
5. A 60-year-old man develops a
tremor in his fingers. The tremor is
most pronounced when he reaches for
his coffee cup or points to an object. Which of the following components of
the motor system is most likely to be
A. Basal ganglia
B. Cerebellar hemisphere
C. Cerebellar vermis
D. Frontal eye field
Ans...........to yestday's set
1-A; 2-A; 3- C; 4-D; 5-B
4th is a sllghtly controversial question
old KCET
question......glossopharyngeal nerve
injury is more asso with tonsilectomy
COCA-COLA Bottle sign is seen in
a. Pseudotumor cerebri
b. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
c. Orbital myocysticercosis
d. Dacryoadenitis
Ans......B......thyroid ophthalmopathy
The coca-cola bottle sign refers to the
appearance of the muscles of the orbit
in thyroid eye disease.
The belly of the muscle enlarges with
sparing of the tendinous insertion,
giving the appearance of the
traditional coca-cola bottle.
Next set........
1. Gerstmann’s syndrome is due to
involvement of:
A. Right parietal lobe
B. Left parietal lobe
C. Upper brainstem
D. Cerebellum
2. Known causes of diffuse interstitial
fibrosis include all of the following,
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Asbestosis
C. Cigarette smoking
D. Bleomycin
3. Lurching gait is produced by the
paralysis of:
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Gluteus medius
C. Adductor magnus
D. Soleus
4. The principal precursor of
cholesterol is:
A. Citrate
B. Acetate
C. Glycerol
D. Lanosterol
5. Drugs associated with significant
ototoxicity include the following,
A. Ethacrynic acid
B. Nitrogen mustard
C. Gentamicin
D. Cotrimoxazole
Ans....to yestday's set
1-B; 2-C; 3-B; 4-D; 5-D
1. voriconazole commonly causes all of
the following side effects except
a. drug-drug interactions
b. photosensitivity skin rashes
c. renal toxicity
d. visual disturbances
2. Helicobacter pylori colonization is
implicated in all of the following
conditions except
a. duodenal ulcer disease
b. gastric adenocarcinoma
c. gastric mucosa-associated lymphoid
tissue (MALT) lymphoma
d. gastroesophageal reflux disease
3. Radial keratoneuritis is a feature of
A. Herpes simplex keratitis
B. Acanthameba keratitis
C. Aspergillus keratitis
D. Post LASIK complication
4. A patient who has undergone
prosthetic valve sur- gery 6 weeks ago
is readmitted with signs and
symptoms consistent with infective
endocarditis. Which of the fol- lowing
is the most likely etiologic organism?
1. Candida albicans
2. Coagulase-negative staphylococci
3. Enterococcus
4. Escherichia coli 5. A deficiency of copper affects the
formation of normal collagen by
affecting the activity of:
A. Glucosyl transferase
B. Galactosyl transferase
C. Prolyl hydroxylase
D. Lysyl oxidase
Ans to yestday's set..........
1-C; 2-D; 3-B; 4-B; 5-D;
Voriconazole is an azole antifungal -
less renal roxicity compared to
Next set..........
1. Bonney’s test is done for
A. Urinary fistula
B. Stresss incontinence
C. Urinary retention
D. Urge incontinence
2. Bronchial asthma is likely to be
relieved by all except :
A. Stimulation of beta adrenoceptors
B. Histamin aerosols
C. Drugs which stabilize mast cell
D. Glucocorticoids
3. Corpora amylaceae is seen in
A. Prostate
B. Parotic
C. Pituitary
D. Pineal
4. MEN type 2 is inherited as
5. A 42 yrs old man was diagnosed to
have a pheochromocytoma tumor.
Staging investigations showed the
tumour to be operable. What definite
therapy will the patient most likely be
started on a few weeks before the
a) verapamil
b) sodium nitroprusside
c) phenoxybenzamine
d) nitroglycerine
6. Ulcus serpens is caused by
A. Streptococcus
B. Pneumococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. pseudomonas
Ans ......to yestday's set........
1-B; 2-B; 3-A; 4-A; 5-C; 6-B
Another set.......from JIPMER
6. Neve found in Guyon’s canal is
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Sciatic nerve
7. Posterior gastric artery is a branch of
A. Hepatic artery
B. Splenic artery
C. Left gastric.
D. Right Gastric artery
8. CO poisoning is type of
A. Stagnant hypoxia
B. Histotoxic hypoxia
C. Hypoxemic hypoxia
D. Anemic hypoxia
9. All muscles are innervated by
oculomotor nerve except
a. superior rectus
b. inferior rectus
c. lateral rectus
d. medial rectus
10. Northern Blotting is for:
C. Protein
D. Polysaccharides
Ans.....to yestday's set
10- A
Few from earlier JIPMER....
1. In post natal period the greatest growth in the CNS is of?
A.Cell body
D.Size of perikaryon
2. A patient with proteinuria has a
renal biopsy that reveals segmental
collapse of the glomerular capillary
loops and overlying podocyte
hyperplasia. The patient most likely
A. diabetes
B. HIV infection
C. multiple myeloma
D. systemic lupus erythematosus
3.Which is Eaton agent ?
A. Mycoplasma
B. H.influenza
C. Klebsiella
D. E.coli
4.Hassal corpuscles are seen in?
A. Adrenals
B. Thyroid
C. Parathyroid
D. Thymus
5. Which of the following Nuclei
DOES not lie in the floor of 4th
ventricle ?
A. Abducens Nerve
B. Facial Nerve
C. Hypoglossal Nerve
D. Vagus Nerve
Ans.....to yestday's set.....
Which aortic arch does not develop
further in human embryo?
Of the six pairs of aortic arches, most
of the 1st and 2nd arches disappear,
5th totally disappears.
++ 1st arch = mainly disappears,
remaining part forms inferior alveolar
artery, branch of maxillary artery
++ 2nd arch = mainly disappears,
remaining part forms stapedial artery
1. The following molecules are
important activators of apoptosis
A. Caspase 3
B. Cytochrome C
C. Heat shock proteins
D. Fas
2. True about neutrophils is
A. Have multilobed nuclei
B. Are the predominant cell type in
chronic inflammation
C. May fuse to form multinucleate
giant cells
D. Have numerous eosinophilic
granules in their cytoplasm
3. Epstein Barr Virus is a/w all except
A. Glandular fever
B. Burkitt’s lymphoma
C. Gastric Ca
D. Nacopharyngeal Ca
4. The following may cause right heart
failure except
D. Atherosclerosis
5. Bladder cells and Wedl cells are
seen in
A. Iris pearls in leprosy
B. Elschnig pearls
C. Basal cell Ca
D. Squamous Cell ca
Ans.........to yestday's set......
1-C; 2-A; 3-C; 4-D; 5-B
1. Autopsy by removal of organs one
by one is called
A. Virchow’s methodB. Letulle’s method
C. Gohn method
D. Rokitanksy method
2. Siderosis is caused by
A. Steel
B. Copper
C. Mercury
D. Brass
3. Topical retinoids used in acne
treatment are all except
A. Adapalene
B. Tazoretene
C. Benzoyl peroxide
D. Tretinoin
4. Tree bark appearance in vessel wall
is seen in
A. Tuberculosis
B. Syphilis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Wegener’s granulomatosis
5. Indian evidence act was enacted in
A. 1871
B. 1872
C. 1901
D. 1902
Answers to yestday set.....
1-A; 2-A; 3-C; 4-B; 5-B....
2. Steel - has ferrous content (alloy of
IRON and carbon) - so siderosis
there...mentioned in parsons.........as
for the rest - they are routine one
Aaron's sign, Rosving's sign, Bastedo's
sign and Dieulafoy's triad is a/w
A. Acute mestenteric ischemia
B. Splenic rupture
C. Acute periotnitis
D. Acute appendicitis
Ans.....D........Acute appendicitis
+ Aaron's sign: a referred pain or
feeling of distress in the
epigastrium or precordial region, on
continuous firm
pressure over McBurney's point, in
acute appendicitis.
+ Bastedo's sign: pain and tenderness
in the right iliac fossa on inflation of
the colon with air, in cases of chronic
+ Rovsing's sign: pain at McBurney's
point induced in cases
of appendicitis, by pressure exerted
over the descending
+ Dieulafoy's triad: tenderness,
muscular contraction and
skin hyperaesthesia at McBurneys
point in appendicitis.
1. The rule of 10 is usually applied for:
A. Adrenal cortical tumours
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Myelolipoma
D. Adrenal metastases
2. The surgeon who introduced catgut
in surgery was:
A. Astley Cooper
B. Lord Lister
C. John Hunter
D. Syme
3. The triad of Whipple is a feature of:
A. Carcinoma head of pancreas
B. Islet cell adenoma of pancreas
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Acute pancreatitis
4. The fold of Treves is:
A. The fold of mucus membrane
projecting into the lumen of the
B. The ileo-appendicular fold of
C. The fold of mucus membrane
around the ampulla of Vater
D. The fold of peritoneum over the
inferior mesenteric vein
5. Astley-Cooper ligament is:
A. Medial end of inguinal ligament
B. Pectineal part of inguinal ligament
C. Fibres along the ileopectineal line
D. Linea semilunaris
Ans.......to yest'days one-liners
1-B; 2-B; 3- B; 4-B, 5- BNUHM (National Urban Health
Mission) was launched in ?
NUHM (National Urban Health
Mission) - launched in 2013
NRHM (National Rural Health
Mission) - launched in 2005
Myeloid or zebra bodies or renal
biopsy are seen in
a. IgA nephropathy
c. Henoch schonelin nephritis
d. Fabry's disease
Ans.......D......Fabry's disease
++ Fabry disease is an X-linked
recessive inherited lysosomal storage
disease, which results in accumulation
of globotriaosylceramide (Gb3) in a
variety of cells, including in the
++ The metabolic defect is deficiency
of the lysosomal hydrolase alphagalactosidase
++ By electron microscopy,
widespread deposits of Gb3 appear
within enlarged secondary lysosomes
as lamellated membrane structures,
called myeloid or zebra bodies
"Staccato" cough is a/w which
pneumonia ?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Chlamydia
c. Hemophilus
d. Mycoplasma
Cough usually occurs as staccato
paroxysms (breath between each
cough) that may be followed by
periods of vomiting or apnea. Thus,
prolonged and distressing cough can
give an important clue for the clinical
diagnosis of C. trachomatis
Yellow colour of Lens Nuclear
degeneration is due to ?
a. Lipofuscin
b. Urochrome
c. Lipochrome
d. Bilirubin
+ In the nuclear cataract the hardened
central lens nucleus appears yellowish
or brown. The color results from an
accumulation of UROCHROME.
+ The colored lens absorbs blue light
distorting color vision - hence
following cataract surgery some ptnts
c/o blue vision - cyanospia - a normal
Road to health chart was designed by
(an earlier TNPG qn)
a. David Hasselhoff
b. David Morley
c. David Gower
d. David Goliath
Ans......B..........David Morley..
Ans yes the options were weird......but
then when the question was a general
knowledge question - so thot options
could be general knowledge based.......
- David Hasselhoff - The "Baywatch"
- David Gower - the stylish English left
handed batsman from the 1980s
- David Goliath - no one keeps that
name ! - stoyr of David and Goliath
from the bible !!
Myerson's sign maybe seen in
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Parkinson's disease
c. Neurocysticercosis
d. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
Ans...B.....Parkinson's disease
Tapping the glabella (i.e., between the
patient’s eyebrows) causes blinking,
which typically ceases after several
taps. Persistent blinking (i.e., more
than 4 or 5 blinks) in response to
glabellar tapping is abnormal, and is
called Myerson’s sign.It Maybe ASSOCIATED WITH
- Parkinson’s disease
- Cerebral infarction
- Cerebral haemorrhage
- Alzheimer’s dementia
- Vascular dementia
- Frontotemporal dementia
- Advanced HIV/AIDS dementia
Achromatopsia related to which area
of occipital cortex?
Ans.....V4....Bilateral damage to the
fourth visual area (area V4) causes
Bull's eye maculopathy maybe caused
by all except
A. Chloroquine tox
B. Stargadts disease
C. Bardet Bield syndrome
D. Polypoidal choroidal vasculopathy
Ans.......D....polypiodal choroidal
BULL'S EYE maculopathy
Chloroquine maculopathy
Advanced Stargdardt’s disease
Fenestrated sheenmacular dystrophy
Benign concentric annular macular
Clofazimine retinopathy
Sielmeyer Vogt synd.
Bardet Biedl synd.
Hallervorden Spatz disease
Leber congenital amaurosis
AD cerebellar ataxia
Maltese crosses are a/w
a. Leishmeniasis
b. Babesiosis
c. Trypanosomiasis
d. Naegleria fowleri
Babesia microti, a hemoprotozoan
parasite of rodents, is also important
as a zoonotic agent of human
The Maltese cross form, which consists
of four masses in an erythrocyte, is
characteristic of the developmental
stage of B. microti.
Face of the giant panda sign and
double panda sign seen on MRI in
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Wilson's disease
c. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
d. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
Ans....B....Wilson disease
The midbrain “panda sign” on T2-
weighted MRI has been previously
described as preservation of normal
signal intensity in the red nuclei and
lateral portion of the pars reticulata of
the substantia nigra, high signal in the
tegmentum, and hypointensity of the
superior colliculus.
The “face of the miniature panda” is
seen within the pontine tegmentum. It
is delineated by the relative
hypointensity of the medial
longitudinal fasciculi and central
tegmental tracts
Pupillary powdering is seen in
a. Pigment dispersion syndrome
b. ICE syndrome
c. Pseudoexfoliation syndrome
d. Posner Schlossmann syndrome
The deposition of pseufoexfoliative
material at the pupillary margin
causes the appearance of 'pupillary
powdering' and this condition is a/w
poor pupillary dilation.
Brain cells most sensitive to hypoxia
a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Astrocytes
c. Pyramidal cells
d. Endothelial cells
Ans......C....Pyramidal cells
+ Brain cells sensitivity to hypoxia
:Neurons > Oligodendrocytes >
Astrocytes > Endothelial cells+ Among Neurons most sensitive are -
Pyramidal cells in area CA1 of
hippocampus (Ammon's horn) -
known as Sommer's sector
First list of essential medicines in India
was published in which year?
The National list of essential
medicines is one of the key
instruments in balanced healthcare
delivery system of a country which
inter alia includes accessible,
affordable quality medicine at all the
primary, secondary, tertiary levels of
Realizing this GOI, MOHFW decided
to have its own essential medicines
list. The first National List of Essential
Medicines of India was prepared and
released in 1996.
The disease which is classically
described as associated with the
ancient "silk route" is
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Behcet's disease
D. Cysticercosis
Ans.....C......Behcet's disease
+ Behçet's disease is a multisystem
disorder named after the Turkish
dermatologist, Hulusi Behçet (1889–
1948), who recognised and reported in
1937 a triad of symptoms consisting of
recurrent eye inflammation, oral ulcers
and genital ulcers.
+ Behçet's disease is particularly
common in the Far East and the
Mediterranean basin, and is frequently
noted between the 30th and 45th
degree latitudes in Asian and
European populations, corresponding
to the Old Silk Road, an ancient
trading route stretching between the
Mediterranean, the Middle East and
the Far East.
+ The disease had also been alluded to
in descriptions by physicians as far
back as Hippocrates.
Ohngren's classification and
Ohngren's line are related to
A. Cerebellopontine angle tumor
B. Maxillary sinus Ca
C. Glomus jugulare tumor
D. Basal cell ca of eyelid
Ans......B......Maxillary Sinus Ca
++ Historically, Ohngren's line,
connecting the medial canthus of the
eye to the angle of the mandible, is
used to divide the maxillary sinus into
an anteroinferior portion
(infrastructure), which is associated
with a good prognosis, and a
superoposterior portion
(suprastructure), which has a poor
++ The poorer outcome associated
with superoposterior cancers reflects
early access of these tumours to critical
structures, including the eye, skull
base, pterygoids, and infratemporal
PIRADS is a reporting scheme for
a. Prostate
b. Pancreatitis
c. Pulmonary X-rays
d. Pregnancy
PI-RADS an acronym for Prostate
Imaging-Reporting and Data System
refers to a structured reporting scheme
for prostate cancer.
The score is assessed on prostate MRI
Acute anterior uveitis associated with
hypopyon is seen with this therapy:
a. Zidovudine
b. Maraviroc
c. Reltegravir
d. Rifabutin
Ans.......D............ (Rifabutin).
Rifabutin is used for prophylaxis of disseminated MAC infection in AIDS
patients; also used in TB and Crohns.
It is well known to be a/w hypopyon
uveitis as a side effect.
ALSO KNOW: Cidofovir can also
cause this effect. Idealisib is FDA
approved for treatment of
Idealisib is a phosphoinositide 3-
kinase inhibitor; more specifically, it
blocks P110δ, the delta isoform of the
enzyme phosphoinositide 3-kinase.
Approved for CLL and relapsed
follicular B-cell non-Hodgkin
lymphoma (FL) and relapsed small
lymphocytic lymphoma (SLL)
Blackfoot disease" is due to
consumption of water contaminated
a. copper
b. selenium
c. ergot
d. arsenic
BlackFoot Disease was associated with
the consumption of inorganic arsenic
from the artesian wells.
Typical clinical symptoms and signs of
progressive arterial occlusion are
mainly found in the lower extremities
Angioid streaks in the fundus are seen
in all except
a. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
b. Acromegaly
c. Paget’s disease
d. Hypocalcemia
Angioid streaks (also called Knapps
striae) are cracks in the Bruch's
I also use this mnemonic
"PAPSHEL.." Psudoxanthoma
elasticum .. Acromegaly ..Pagets
disease..Sickle cell
disease..Hypercalcemia.. Ehler Danlos
syndr.. Lead poisoning.
The test of choice to detect
perivalvular abcess of the aortic valve
(a) MRI of heart
(b) Transesophageal Echo with
(c) Ventriculography
(d) CT chest
An earlier Comed-K question
“Trans Esophageal Echocardiography
with color Doppler is the test of choice
to detect perivalvular abscesses: -
H'son 18th
Marey's law relates
a. heart rate and BP
b. cardiac output and stroke volume
c. respiratory rate and exercise
d. Hb level and hypoxia
Ans.....A.........heart rate and BP
Marey's Law states that heart rate is
inversely related to arterial blood
Bracht-Wachter bodies are found in
a. rheumatic heart disease
b. subacute bacterial endocarditis
c. old sign of acute MI
d. amyloidosis of heart
Ans......B.......... subacute bacterial
Bracht–Wachter bodies are found in
infective endocarditis consisting of
yellow-white miliary spots in the
First appendicectomy was performed
by (don't curse me for this........BUT
was asked in DNBCET earlier)a. Jacopo Berengario da Carpi
b. Gabriele Fallopio
c. Caspar Bauhin
d. Claudius Amyand
Ans...........D........Claudius Amyand
The first successful appendicectomy
was performed in 1735 by Claudius
+ Kurt Semm performed the first
laparoscopic appendectomy in 1981
Most common side effect of ACE
inhibitors is
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Dry cough
c. Ankle edema
d. Angioedema
Ans.....(B).......Dry cough
+ Dry cough is the most common and
annoying, although harmless, side
effect associated with the use of ACE
+ It usually disappears on withdrawal
of the specific ACE inhibitor
+ Accumulation of bradykinin maybe
the cause
Treatment fo choice for bacillary
angiomatosis is
a. erythromycin
b. amoxicillin
c. ciprofloxacin
d. trimethorpim-sulfamethaxazole
+ Bacillary Angiomatosis is caused by
Bartonella henslae or B.quintana
+ MC manifestation is raised, reddish,
highly vascular skin lesions that can
mimic the lesions of Kaposi sarcoma;
common in AIDS
+ Drug of choice : erythromycin
Lafora bodies maybe associated with
a. Alzheimer's disease
b. Epilepsy
c. Acute hemorrhagic stroke
d. Wernicke's encephalopathy
Lafora disease: progressive myoclonus
epilepsy ; lafora bodies - abnormal
glycogen clumps in neurons......
+ Hirano bodies: Alzheimer's disease
+ Bunina bodies: ALS
All are used for treating osteoporsis
a. Zoledronic acid
b. Pamidronate
c. Denosumab
d. Natalizumab
Zoledronic acid and pamidronate - IV
Denosumab - monoclonal antibody
that prevents conversion of
preosteoclast to mature osteoclast.
+ Teriparatide used in osteoporsis Rx -
analog of PTH; it stimulates the
production of new collagenous bone
Sampolaesi's line is seen in
a. cornea
b. angle of the eye
c. retina
d. optic chiasma
Ans.....B > A.......a controversial
question from a recent exam
Technically Sampolaesi's line is a
pigmented line just anterior to
Schwalbe's line......considering that
Schwalbe's line is a peripheral
termination of Descemet's membrane
A (cornea) may be marked as answer;
BUT sampolaesi's line is seen clinically
ONLY by gonioscopy - in the angle of
the eye (B)
Medulloblastoma belongs to grade
______ as per WHO classification ?
MedulloBLASToma and
GlioBLASToma - Grade IV
Osteitis and osteomyelitis maybe
complications with which vaccine?
a. MMR
b. BCG
c. HiB
d. Hepatitis B
Osteitis and OSteomyelitis - BCG
ALSO KNOW - Vaccine associated
reactions (add to MAGIC 7/e Pg 247)
+ Toxic shock syndrome - Measles
+ Acute cerebellar ataxia ,
Pneumonitis - Varicella
+ Transient thrombocytopenia -
measles, MMR, HiB vaccine
+ Intussusception - Rotavirus vaccine
Exanthem subitum is caused by
a. Herpes virus
b. EBV
c. Poxvirus
d. Togavirus
Exanthem subitum (Roseola infantum)
is a common childhood disease. The
causative organism is human
herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6).
The classic presentation of roseola
infantum is a 9- to 12-month-old infant
who acutely develops a high fever and
often a febrile seizure.
After 3 days, a rapid defervescence
occurs, and a morbilliform rash
Winking owl sign seen in
a. vertebral metastases
b. neurofibromatosis
c. maxillary sinusitis
d. orbital metastases
Ans.....A......vertebral metastases
Erosion of the pedicles (the "winking
owl" sign) is the earliest radiologic
finding of vertebral tumor. - H'son
In 2008, a series of suicides planned
over the internet in
Japan cam to be known as The
Japanese Detergent Suicide
technique........gas involved was
a. Carbon monoxide
b. hydrogen sulfide
c. sulfur hexaflouride
d. hydroegn cyanide
Ans....b.....hydrogen sulfide
Was an earlier AIIMS question..........if
u r interested read more here.....
Ozurdex intravitreal implant consist of
_______ mg of dexamethasone (prev
AIIMS numerical question)
a. 0.5
b. 0.6
c. 0.7
d. 1.0
OZURDEX (dexamethasone
intravitreal implant) 0.7 mg is a
biodegradable implant injected into
the eye (vitreous; approved for
-- macular edema following branch
retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) or
central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)
-- NON infectious posterior uveitis
Eosinophilia is the presence of >
_________ eosinophils per microlitre of
a. 400
b. 500
c. 600
d. 700
Ans..... B 500
Eosinophilia is the presence of > 500
eosinophils per microL of blood -
H'son 18thFew more.........
1. Carney’s triad is associated with all
B. Male preponderance
C. pulmonary chondroma
D. manifests in younger age group
2. Dubois abscess is seen in
A. skin
B. thymus
C. adrenals
D. eyelids
3. Component of corpora
quadrigemina is
A. Fourth ventricle
B. Medulla
C. Superior colliculus
D. Sigmoid sinus
Carney triad: extra-adrenal
paraganglioma, GIST, and pulmonary
chondroma; MC in young females
Dubois abscess: thymus (a/w
congenital syphilis)
Corpora quadrigemina = sup + inf
Few qns
1. "Piano Key Sign" is positive in
A) Carpal Instability
B) Proximal Radioulnar Joint
C) Distal Tibiofibular Joint Instability
D) Distal Radioulnar Joint Instability
2. Dyslipidemia can be a side effect of
A. Ramipril
B. Thiazides
C. Amlopdepine
D. Amiloride
3. Acute hemorrhagic cystitis may be
seen with
A. Methotrexate
B. Azathioprine
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Paclitaxel
Ans.....D B C
Piano key sign - DRUJ instaibility -
was asked in MH SSET and COMEDK
Thiazides - dyslipidemia
Cyclophopshamide - cystitis - str
forward qn
All are features of Addisonian
(Adrenal) crisis except
a. abdominal pain
b. hypertension
c. hyponatremia
d. hypoglycemia
An acute adrenal crisis can manifest
with vomiting, abdominal pain, and
hypovolemic shock.
Hyponatremia is common (although
not diagnostic); hyperkalemia,
metabolic acidosis, and hypoglycemia
also may be present.
1. Stiles Crawford effect is with respect
A. Cornea
B. Retina
C. Crystalline lens
D. Cataractous lens
2. Ame’s test is used to detect
A. Action potential
B. Mutagenic potential
C. Cataractogenic potential
D. Emetogenic potential
3. Kveim sitzbach test is diagnostic for
A. Amyloidosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Tuberculosis
D. Brucellosis
4. touton giant cells are seen in
A. tumors
B. xanthomas
D. TB5. True about Canakinumab is
A. acts against IL-1
B. acts against Il-2
C. used in asthma
D. used in rheumatoid arthritis
Ans to yest set.........
1-B; 2-B; 3-B; 4-B; 5-A
Canakinumab is a human monoclonal
antibody targeted at interleukin-1
beta; approved for the treatment of
cryopyrin-associated periodic
Apremilast - FDA approved for
psoriatic arthritis is a
a. phosphodiesterase 4 inhibitor
b. histone deacetylase inhibitor
c. anti IgG monoclonal antibody
d. new herbal remed
Ans....A.... phosphodiesterase 4
Apremilast is a phosphodiesterase 4
(PDE4) inhibitor indicated for the
treatment of adult patients with active
psoriatic arthritis.
all are used for treating mycosis
fungoides except
a. bexarotene
b. omalizumab
c. vorinostat
d. electron beam therapy
Romidepsin is another hitone
deacetylase inhibitor used for mycosis
fungoides; bexarotene, vorinostat and
electron beam theray are options.
Also Know
Omalizumab is a recombinant
humanized IgG1 monoclonal anti-IgE
antibody - INDICATED FOR adults
and adolescents (12 years of age and
above) with moderate to severe
persistent asthma.
Fruit with bite mark of the victim or
suspect is preserved in
A. Camdens solution
B. Hartmann's solution
C. Refrigerator door
D. Refrigerator freezer compartment
Ans is ......A.....Campden's solution
This was a JIPMER qn......Campden's
solution is a metabisulphite solution
used for fruit bottling and is used for
preserving fruit bite marks.
Chocolate with bite marks are
preserved in refrigerator (NOT frozen)
Kaufman white scheme is for
serotyping of
a. clostridia
b streptococci
c. staphylococci
d. salmonella
The Kauffman and White classification
scheme is a system that classifies the
genus Salmonella into serotypes,
based on surface antigens.
-- Selection of cells rich in H antigens
may be made using a device, named
Craigie's tube
SPIKES approach is used
a. during CPR in infant
b. during CPR in adult
c. for critically ill patient in ICU
d. for epileptic found in non hospital
Ans....C....for critically ill patient in
SPIKES approach is a protocol for
disclosing unfavorable information—
“breaking bad news”—to cancer
patients about their illness.
Straightforward and practical, the
protocol meets the requirements
defined by published research on this
topic. The protocol (SPIKES) consists
of six steps
S = "Setting Up"
P = "Perception"I = "Invitation"
K = "Knowledge"
E = "Empathising and Exploring"
S = "Strategy and Summary"
Urinary bladder develops from the
a. Pronephros
b. mesonephros
c. metanephros
d. urogenital sinus
Ans.....(D)....urogenital sinus
Bladder develops from urogenital
-- Epithelium of trigone of the bladder
is derived from the absorbed
mesonephric / WOLFFIAN ducts
Prophylaxis with vitamin ‘C’ is helpful
in preventing
A) Flurosis
B) Neuro Lathyrism
C) Iodine deficiency
D) Botulism
Vitamin C prophylaxis has shown
benifit in prophylaxis of
MRI sign of intracapsular rupture of a
breast implant is
a. linguine sign
b. meniscus sign
c. double line sign
d. toothpaste sign
Ans...(A)...Linguine sign
Linguine sign: MRI sign of
intracapsular rupture of a breast
-- Meniscus sign: Air is seen between
the Aspergillus fungal ball and the
wall of the cavity
-- Double line sign: Avascular necrosis
of femoral head on MRi
-- Toothpaste sign: Represents an
extrusion of a disc into epidural space
Quilty effect is seen in
A. Kidney transplantation
B. Lung transplantation
C. Cardiac transplantation
D. Bone marrow transplantatio
Ans....C....Cardiac transplantation
Quilty effect refers to lymphocytic
infiltrates in the endocardium of
cardiac allografts.
Quilty effect is generally not regarded
as a manifestation of rejection and
should be distinguished from focal
interstitial lymphoid infiltrates of
cellular rejection.
Sofosbuvir and Simeprevir were FDA
approved in 2013 for ?
a. Hep B
b. Hep C
c. HIV
d. H1N1
Ans...(B).....Hepatitis C
- Nucleotide analog inhibitor -
- Protease inhibitor - Simeprevir,
is approved for treating adults with
chronic hepatitis C virus or HCV
Rigler sign is seen in
a. Pneumothorax
b. Pneumoperitoneum
c. Pneumoencephaloecele
d. Pericardial effusion
The Rigler's sign, also known as the
double wall sign, is seen on an x-ray of
the abdomen when air is present on
both sides of the intestine, i.e. when
there is air on both the luminal and
peritoneal side of the bowel wall -
Pneumoperitoneum (due to
perforation or, from recent
instrumentation or surgery)
The precore mutants in Hepatitis B are
characterised by notable absence of A) HBVDNA
B) HBeAg
C) HBcAg
D) AntiHBeAg
Ans....(B).....HBeAg ....MHCET 2014 qn
Hepatitis B virus (HBV) precore
mutants are associated often with
highly productive infection in
hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
carriers lacking hepatitis B e antigen
(HBeAg) but positive for anti-HBe,
rendering serological identification of
infectious individuals unreliable.
von Herick's method is useful for
a. grade of posterior subcapsular
b. thickness of cornea
c. depth of anterior chamber
d. macular edema post cataract
Ans....(C).....depth of anterior chamber
von Herick's method is for asessing
the depth of the anterior chamber -
compares peripheral anterior chamber
depth with thickness of the peripheral
cornea - used for assessing risk of
angle closure
Also Know - Lincoff's rule : used for
determining site of break in retinal
Recent AIIMS journal publication
Which is a SGLT2 inhibitor ?
a. Exanitide
b. Canagliflozin
c. Saroglitazar
d. Sitagliptin
-- The kidneys reabsorb glucose via
sodium glucose co-transporters
(SGLTs), primarily SGLT2.
-- Canagliflozin provides SGLT2
inhibition, reducing renal glucose
reabsorption and increasing urinary
glucose excretion
"Box shaped" heart on x-ray is seen in
a. tetralogy of Fallot
b. Ebstein anomaly
d. Endocardial cushion defect
anomaly..........ALSO KNOW
-- box-shaped heart (Ebstein anomaly).
-- scimitar (partial anomalous
pulmonary venous return),
-- gooseneck (endocardial cushion
-- boot-shaped heart (tetralogy of
-- figure of three and reverse figure of
three (aortic coarctation),
-- egg on a string: transposition of the
great arteries),
-- snowman/figure of 8/cottage leaf
sign: [TAPVR
MC cardiovascular manif of
thyrotoxicosis is
a. sinus tachycardia
b. atrial fibrillation
c. supraventricular tachycardia
Ans.....A.....sinus tachycardia
Sinus tachycardia is the MC
cardiovascular manifestation of
Atrial fibrillation is more common in
patients >50 years of age.
Straightforward question but like I
always say u've got to get the simple
ones also right......
which of the follwing is known to
cause acute myopia and angle closure
glaucoma ?
a. gabapentin
b. levatricetam
c. quetiapine
d. topiramate
Topiramate is an oral sulphamate medication primarily used for seizure,
migraine and neuropathic pain.
It has been a/w secondary bilateral
angle closure, which can mimic acute
angle closure glaucoma and induced
myopia also.
-- Quetiapine is a/w cataracts
Vogt’s triad includes all except
A. Seizures
B. Mental retardation
C. Choroidal hemangioma
D. Adenoma sebaceum
Vogts triad in tuberous sclerosis
includes EPILOIA= EPIlepsy, LOw Iq
and Adenoma sebaceum
Shifting sands of Sahara syndrome
may be seen as a complication of
B. Scleral buckling surgery
C. Squint surgery for paralytic squint
D. Glaucoma calve implant
- Sands of the Sahara syndrome, or
diffuse lamellar keratitis (DLK) as it is
more commonly called, is an
exaggerated interface inflammation
following lamellar refractive surgery.
- While all LASIK patients on careful

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