Medicaltalk.net

@DrVijay wrote:

Sure Success MAGIC, Ramgopal's Facebook MCQs
ABOUT THESE MCQS
 I have been posting MCQs regularly for the past 3 years now, on my Facebook page and these MCQs have been well
received by the PG aspirants
 These were compiled and printed in the 7th (earlier) edition of "Sure Success MAGIC"; however these have been omitted
from the new 8th edn since I convinced the publisher to make it available online for free download.....so here they are.
 SOME of these MCQs have been asked in recent exams like - Dawson fingers and Splendore Hoeppli phenomenon in
DNBCT, Ocriplasmin and burnt rope odour in AIIMS, French paradox in Karnataka CET etc....

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Acute anterior uveitis associated with hypopyon is seen
with this therapy:
a. Zidovudine
b. Maraviroc
c. Reltegravir
d. Rifabutin
D (Rifabutin). Rifabutin is used for prophylaxis of
disseminated MAc infection in AIDS patients; also used in
TB and Crohns. It is well known to be a/w hypopyon
uveitis as a side effect. ALSO NOTE: Cidofovir can also
cause this effect.
All are features of Bourneville's disease except
a. Cardiac rhabdomyoma
b. Konen's fibromas
c. Pancreatic Ca
d. Retinal angiomas
Answer to this morning's qn is "c" (pancreatic Ca). Renal
cell ca is a/w Tuberous sclerosis (Bourneville's) and not
pancreatic ca. Konen's subungual firbomas are also seen.
ALSO NOTE: Retinal astrocytoma (mulberry tumor) is
also seen.
The Pulvinar sign refers to T2 hyperintensity in the
posterior thalamic nuclei (the pulvinar). It is classically
described in
a. Arnold Chiari malformation
b. Parkinson disease
c. Creutzfelt Jakob disease
d. Alzheimer's disease
Answer to this evening's question (pulvinar sign) is "C"
(CJD) as all of you said......actually its in 'variant
CJD' Also NOTE: "Hockey stick sign" in variant CJD :
hyperintense signal involving the pulvinar and
dorsomedial thalamic nuclei bilaterally on FLAIR, which
has the shape of a hockey stick.
A 12-year-old girl with sickle cell disease has pain in her
right arm. An x-ray of the right upper extremity shows
bony lesions consistent with osteomyelitis. Which of the
following is the most likely causal organism?
(A) Clostridium septicum
(B) Enterococcus faecalis
(C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(D) Salmonella enteritidis
Answer to yesterday nights (osteomyelitis) question is "d"
- salmonella Abut 80% cases of osteomyelitis in sickel cell
patients are caused by salmonella. ALSO NOTE: Hshaped
vertebra is also seen in Sickle cell disease
Info about antisnythetase syndrome
“Antisynthetase syndrome" is seen in subset of patients
with polymyositis and dermatomyositis consisting of
inflammatory arthritis, fever, Raynaud phenomenon,
“mechanic’s hands” (hyperkeratosis along the radial and
palmar aspects of the fingers) interstitial lung disease, and
often severe muscle disease a/w anti-Jo1, anti-PL7/PL12
antibodies. ALSO Note: Anti 155/140 is seen in
dermatomyositis a/w malignancy
Holman Miller sign / Antral sign indicates anterior
bowing of the posterior wall of maxillary antrum and is
seen in
a. Orbital complication of FESS surgery
b. Post optic nerve decompression surgery
c. Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
d. Grossly Deviated nasal septum
Answer to yesterday nights question: is "c" as all of u
said Holman Miller sign / Antral sign indicates anterior
bowing of the posterior wall of maxillary antrum is seen
in Juvenile Nasopharyngeal angiofirboma Also Note:
JNA occurs only in males
Quilty effect is seen in
A. Kidney transplantation
B. Lung transplantation
C. Cardiac transplantation
D. Bone marrow transplantation
ANSWER to this mornings question (quilty) is "c" (cardiac
transplanatation) Quilty effect refers to lymphocytic
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MCQs
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Ramgopal's
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infiltrates in the endocardium of cardiac allografts. Quilty
effect is generally not regarded as a manifestation of
rejection and should be distinguished from focal
interstitial lymphoid infiltrates of cellular rejection. Also
Note: Azzopardi effect in small cell Ca lung
Open ring sign is relatively specific for
a. Space occupying lesion
b. Intracranial hypertension
c. Demyelination
d. Intracranial abscess
Answer to this evenings question (open ring) is "c"
demyelination... The open ring sign (white matter
crescent sign) is a relatively specific sign for
demyelination, helpful in distinguishing between ring
enhancing lesions. The enhancing component is thought
to represent advancing front of demyelination and thus
favours the white matter side of the lesion. The open part
of the ring will therefore usually point towards the grey
matter. Also NOTE: McDonald's MRI criteria are used for
Multiple sclerosis
All are features of acromegaly except
a. Sweaty handshake
b. Hypotension
c. Visual field loss
d. Headaches
ANSWER to acromegaly question....is "b"
(hypotension).... HYPERtesnion is seen in acromegaly
and the other choices are also correct.....be aware of
clinical features of all endocrine disorders.....easily askable
question in exams... ALSo nOTE: Acromegaly a/w
insulin resistance and diabetes.
NAPQI is a toxic metabolite formed during metabolism
of
a. Acetylsalicylic acid
b. Paracetamol
c. Ibuprofen
d. Diclofenac
Answer to this morning's NAPQI question NAPQI (Nacetyl-
p-benzoquinone imine) is a toxic byproduct
produced during the metabolism of the analgesic
paracetamol/crocin (acetaminophen). NAPQI is rendered
harmless because it combines with glutathione. But if
there’s too much NAPQI, which can happen with an
acetaminophen overdose, or not enough glutathione to
sop up NAPQI, which happens if you haven’t eaten well
or are malnourished, then liver damage can occur.
Which of the following vitamin deficiencies has been
correlated with occurrence of hypertension
a. Vitamin B6
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin B12
Answer to this evening's question (HTN) is B (vitamin
D12) Vitamin D deficiency is said to cause hypertension,
the leading factor in heart attacks and stroke. A new study
presented at the annual conference of the European
Society of Human Genetics in Paris recently announced
these findings, stating that there is a causal association
between vitamin D status and blood pression.
Reverse halo sign is seen in all except
a. Blastomycosis
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Cryptogenic organising pneumonia
d. Bronchial asthma
Answer to yestday nights (reverse halo) question is
"D".... The reversed halo sign (also known as the atoll
sign, reverse halo sign, and the fairy ring sign) is defined
by central ground-glass opacity with a surrounding halo
or crescent of consolidation. The reversed halo sign was
first described and is most commonly associated with
COP (cryptogenic organising Pneumonia) but is not
specific to this disease.1 It has been reported in the setting
of bacterial pneumonia, mucormycosis,
paracoccidioidomycosis, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis,
radiofrequency ablation, lymphomatoid granulomatosis,
Wegener granulomatosis, tumor, and pulmonary infarcts.
The reversed halo sign is seen in approximately 20% of
patients with COP and 10% of cases of South American
blastomycosis.
The MC cause of Parinauds oculoglandular syndrome is
a. pasteurella multicoda
b. . toxocara canis
c. Leptospira canicola
d. bartonella henslae
ANSWER to this mornings (parinaud's)
question..... Parinaud's oculoglandular syndrome (POS)
consists of the characteristic granulomatous conjunctival
inflammation, usually unilateral, with extension to or
involvement of local, ipsilateral lymph nodes. Cat-scratch
disease (Bartonella henselae) is by far the most common
etiology.
"Blue diaper syndrome" is due to defect in intestinal
absorption of
a. Vitamin B12
b. Iron
c. Tryptophan
d. Thiamine
Answer to yestday's (blue diaper) question: is C
(tryptophan) Blue Diaper syndrome is a hereditary
metabolic disorder characterised by hypercalcaemia with
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nephrocalcinosis and indicanuria. Affected infants present
with digestive problems, fever and periodic irritability.
Visual disturbances have also been reported. The disease
is associated with a defect in intestinal TRYPTOPHAN
absorption that leads to a bluish discoloration of the urine
when it comes into contact with the air. autosomal
recessive or X-linked. mutations in the LAT2 and TAT1
genes, encoding two amino acid transporters.
ALSO
RED diaper syn-serrratia marcesans, BLACK diaperalkaptonuria
The NEW layer of the human cornea (Dua's layer - after
Harminder Dua) is proposed to lie between
A. Epithelium and Bowman's membrane
B. Bowman's membrane and stroma
C. Stroma and Descemet's membrane
D. Descemet's membrane and endothelium
ANSWER to this evening's (Dua's layer)
question: Professor Harminder Dua has published a
study in the journal, Ophthalmology that found a new
layer in the human cornea. The research involved
examining donated eyes and disecting the corneas. Prof
Dua has named the new layer Dua's layer. A strong,
acellular corneal layer exists BETWEEN the stroma and
Descemet’s membrane (pre-Descemet's). The discovery
may significantly alter posterior corneal surgery and
affect treatment of conditions such as acute hydrops,
descemetocele and pre-Descemet’s dystrophies
A lil Baddtameezee here.......but couldn't resist asking this
question.........just for kicks...... In the movies YJHD, which
textbook is Deepika Padukone reading in Manali A.
Human Physiology B. Neuro immunology C. Medical
Biochemistry D. ECG made easy
Have u watched the movie ?
Circle of Hebra seen in ?
a. Atopic dermatitis
b. Bullous pemhigoid
c. Porphyira cutanea tarda
d. Scabies
Hebra: The main sites affacted in scabies like axillae,
elbows, wrists, hands, and crotch form an imaginary circle
called the circle of Hebra - named after Ferdinand von
Hebra who discovered the cause of scabies
"Dot-in-circle" sign on MRI seen in
A. Cycticercosis
B. Amputated foot
C. Mycetoma
D. Cellulitis
Dot in circle sign: has recently been proposed as a highly
specific magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and
ultrasonography (USG) sign of mycetoma, which may
allow a noninvasive as well as early diagnosis; tiny
hypointense foci within the hyperintense spherical lesion -
high-signal areas seen on MRI represented inflammatory
granulomata, the low-intensity tissue seen surrounding
these lesions represented the fibrous matrix, and the small
central hypointense foci within the granulomata
represented the fungal balls or grains
A 50-year-old man being treated for increased serum LDL
concentration has muscle pain that has recently become
more severe, especially with exercise. He is most likely to
be taking a drug with which of the following mechanisms
of action?
(A) Binding bile acids
(B) Decreasing binding of bile acids
(C) Decreasing production of LDL
(D) Inhibiting the activity of 3-hydroxy-3- methylglutaryl
(HMG) CoA reductase
Answer to this morning's question is (D) as all of u
said Statins act by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase, the
rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis. Myopathy
and rhabdomyolysis are rare but serious side effects.
Recent AIIMS journal related question: "Hockey stick"
sign is seen in hemiagenesis of which organ?
a. Adrenal
b. Thyroid
c. Pancreas
d. Liver
Answer to this mornings "hockey" question: Thyroid
hemiagenesis - hockey stick sign; MC left lobe is
absent. Also NOTE: Hockey stick sign in CJD: refers to
the hyperintense signal involving the pulvinar and
dorsomedial thalamic nuclei bilaterally on FLAIR, in cases
of variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD), which has the
shape of a hockey stick.
Intraoperative Floppy Iris Syndrome which causes
problems during cataract surgery is a/w use of
a. Sildenafil
b. Tamsulosin
c. Aliskiren
d. Atropine
Answer to this evening's (IFIS) question is B as all of u
said The reason why tamsulosin can cause Intraoperative
Floppy Iris Syndrome (IFIS) is the same as the reason for
its mechanism of action for treating BPH: it relaxes the
smooth muscle of the bladder neck—and, inadvertently,
the iris dilator as well—by specifically targeting the
alpha1A receptors. Its specificity significantly reduces the
postural hypotension that is common to nonselective
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alpha blockers used to treat BPH. The blockade of this
receptor subtype, however, renders ineffective the
conventional dilator drops used in cataract surgery. Other
drugs implicated to cause IFIS are alpha1 blockers, such as
terazosin and alfuzosin and Doxazosin.
Romidepsin is a histone deacetylase inhibitor approved
for treatment of
a. Psoriatic arthritis
b. Cutaneous T cell lymphoma
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Steven Johnson's syndrome
Answer to this morning's romidepsin
question: Romidepsin and vorinostat are second line
therapy for CTCL (in patients with failed prior systemic
therapy) - both are histone deacetylase inhibitors.
Which vitamin is used in treating ketatoconus?
B1
B2
B6
B12
Answer to this mornings keratoconus question Vitamin
B2 riboflavin eyedrops is used in performing collagen
cross linking - A procedure to strengthen the cornea - the
B2 moistened cornea is exposed to UV light
Which medical student observed glass pieces in world
war fighter pilot's eyes and invented the intraocular lenses
?
a. .Helmholtz
b. elschnig
c. harold ridley
d. . von graefe
People who r crazy enough to think they can change the
world are usually the ones who DO!!! - Steve Jobs ......true
to this Harold Ridley was one who did this by introducing
IOLs ....thats the answer for this mrnings qn.....GOOGLE
his name to read his story
Splinter hemorrhages at optic disc margin are more
common in
a . primary open angle glaucoma
b. primary angle closure glaucoma
c. normal tension glaucoma
d. drug induced glaucoma
Answer to this morning AIIMS type qn is normal tension
glaucoma. splinter hemorrhages at disc margin r a sign
of ongoing damage to the optic nerve and maybe found in
any type of glaucoma but MC in normal tensiom
glauvoma
Russell's sign is seen in
A. anorexia nervosa
B. bulimia nervosa
C. morbid obsesity
D. AIDS cachexia
answer is bulimia nervosa - russell sign- abrasions and
callus over knuckles can occur in bulimia nervosa due to
inserting hand in mouth for inducing vomiting
Magical thinking is seen in this pers disorder
a . schizoid
b . schizotypal
c . narcissistic
d . antisocial
Answer to this evenings question is schizoTypal disorder
- characterized by: magical Thinking, Other features:
Inappropriate/constricted affect, ideas (not delusions) of
reference, unusual perceptions (e.g. bodily illusions), odd
ideas (about telepathy), suspiciousness,
circumstantial/tangential thinking, eccentricity and excess
social anxiety. More common in relatives of people with
SZ.
Which of the following drugs has been "popped" as an
'orgasm enhancer'
a. Cocaine
b. Marijuana
c. Amyl Nitrite
d. Amphetamines
amyl nitrite as the answer since it has been used as
"poppers" for enhancing orgasms.....{'popping' is the
sound which occurs when the amyl nitrite ampule is
broken/popped}..BUT if u look at other references
cocaine, MDMA (ecstacy), LSD have also been used for
the same purpose............
Patient on which of the following drugs should be
screened for cataract formation ?
a. tamsulosin
b. quetapine
c. Clozapine
d. Olanzapine
Answer to this morn qn is B quetiapine - As per drug
package insert 6 monthly eye checkup needed to rule out
cataract. Dr AU and Dr PBH - topper who wrote their tips
few days earlier mentioned that - dont rush into qm and
reason it out. Tamsulosin causes floppy iris mo doubt
BUT NOT cataracts....u ll come across lotsa elder men
using tamsulosin...for BPH....if it was causing catracts
imagine ....It would have been banned. as for clozapine ,
remember agranulocytosis and weight gain fr olanzapine
Pavithran's nose sign is seen in
a. Acne rosacea
b. Acne vulgaris
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c. Exfoliative dermatitis
d. Pustular psoriasis
answer to nose sign qn is c . exfol derm. it is the sparing of
nose, discovered by dr pavithran, probably due to sun
exposure which reduces the scaling or frequent nose
blowing which removes scales from the nose area. More
such MCQs daily.....share with ur frnds
Holoprosencephaly is seen in
a. patau synd
b. edward synd
c. down synd
d. turner synd
Answer to this evenings "holo.." qb is Triaosmy 13, patau
syndrome as all of u said Holoprosencephaly results from
incomplete separation of the two hemispheres. Results
from incomplete or absent division of the embryonic
forebrain (prosencephalon).
Comb sign is seen in
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Pseudomembranous colitis
c. Crohns disease
d. TB ileitis
Answer to yestday nights (comb qn) is Crohn's disease as
all of u said... The comb sign refers to the appearance of
the mesentary when increased flow, fibrofatty
proliferation and perivascular inflammatory infiltration
outlines the intestinal arcades. This forms linear densities
on the mesenteric side of the affected segments of small
bowel. It is a sign of active CROHN'S disease and is seen
on both CT and MRI.
A 25 yr old man presented with blurred vision 2 days
after being started on treatment for migraine. His IOP was
34 mmHg in both eyes and he had - 2 D myopia (earlier
emmetropic). The causative drug is
a. Sumatriptan
b. Flunarizine
c. Topiramate
d. Propranolol
Answer to this morn qn... Topiramate is a sulfa derivative
that is commonly prescribed in india by neurologists - it is
a/w idiosyncratic reaction of induced myopia, shallow
antr chamber and angle closure glaucoma. - due to -
supraciliary fluid collection and antr rotation of ciliary
body; YAG PI will not help; stop offending drug and
cycloplegic to pull back the lens-iris diaphragm.
Important coz - commonly encountered and likely to be
asked in AIIMS/any other exams
Which drug used to treat psoriasis has been withdrawn
since it caused PML (progressive multifocal
leukencephalopathy) ?
A. Adalimumab
B. Infliximab.
C. Ustekinumab
D. Efalizumab
efaliz has been linked with PML n also the fumaric acid
esters r implicated.
CURB score is used for
a. Cannabis addiction
b. Pneumonia
c. Intestinal obstruction
d. Acute pancreatitis
Answer to yestday's qn...... CURB-65 Severity Score for
Community-Acquired Pneumonia: Calculates the CURB-
65 Score to estimate pneumonia mortality to help
determine inpatient vs. outpatient
treatment. Confusion BUN > 19 mg/dL (7 mmol/L) /
Respiratory Rate ≥ 30 / Systolic BP < 90 mmHg or
Diastolic BP ≤ 60 mmHg / Age ≥ 65
In which type of lung ca is gynecomastia common
a. small cell
b. large cell
c. epidermoid
d. adeno ca
Answer for this morn gynecomastia qn is large cell type of
lung Ca. Also remember SIADH - Small cell
ca hypercalcemia - Squamous cell ca DIC - Adeno Ca
The most frequently altered gene in estrogen-dependent
endometrioid endometrial carcinoma tumors is
A. p53
B. PTEN
C. kRAS
D. Her2/neu
Answer to yestday night's qn........ Bokhman have
generally categorized endometrial cancer into two broad
groups of tumors using both clinical and histopathological
variables: estrogen-dependent endometrioid endometrial
carcinomas (EECs), or type I, and non-endometrioid
endometrial carcinomas (NEECs), or type II tumors . The
most frequently altered gene in estrogen-dependent
endometrioid endometrial carcinoma tumors is PTEN. In
contrast, p53 mutations or Her2/neu overexpression are
more frequent in non-endometrioid tumors
Egg shell calcification of lymph nodes is seen in all except
a. Silicosis
b. Coal pneumoconiosis
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Leukemia
Answer to this morn qn.........pretty straightforward qn
being asked in various entrances from time
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immemorial...... Egg shell calcification of LNs : Silicosis,
sarcoidosis, lymphoma (following radiotherapy) and coal
workers pneumoconiosis - the mnemonic I use in my
book is "SILly SARah LYMPed to the COAL mine"....
Maddrey’s Discriminant Function is used for
A. Alcoholic hepatitis
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. end stage liver disease
D. Acute MI
Answer to yest night's qn..... Maddrey's discriminant
function (DF) was described to predict prognosis in
alcohol-related hepatitis and identify patients suitable for
treatment with steroids ALSO KNOW: abt the other
options: SAH - Hunt and Hess scale end stage liver
disease: MELD Acute MI - TIMI and GRACE scores
Velaglucerase alfa is used in treatment of
a. Tay Sach's disease
b. Niemann Pick's disease
c. Fabry's disease
d. Gaucher's diseas
ANSWER to this aftn qn. is D. Gaucher's.... Enzyme
replacement therapy for type 1 Gaucher disease is now
available and includes imiglucerase, velaglucerase alfa,
and taliglucerase alfa. Most patients receive the
recombinant enzyme imiglucerase
Lorenzo's oil is used in
A. Metahcormatic leukodystrophy
B. Adrenoleukodystrophy
C. Krabbe's disease
D. Gaucher's disease
Answer to this evening's qn......As Aruna and many others
said ......is B (adrenoleukodystrophy) Lorenzo’s oil is a
combination of two chemicals called erucic acid and oleic
acid.Lorenzo’s oil is used as a treatment for two related
inherited conditions - adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD),
which occurs in children; and adrenomyeloneuropathy,
which occurs in adults. The oil is named after a child,
Lorenzo Odone, who developed ALD. His parents
discovered a mixture of fatty acids that seemed to slow
progression of the disease. The mixture became known as
“Lorenzo’s oil. - ALSO a movie of the same name based
on this true story was made in 1992 and that's the picture I
had posted. These disorders cause accumulation of very
long-chain fatty acids(VLCFA) in the blood and many
other tissues.The white matter of the brain, the Leydig
cells of the testes and the adrenal cortex are the most
severely affected systems.The levels of VLCFA can be
normalized by treatment with Lorenzo's oil, but this does
not alter the progression of the disease.
All are pervasive developmental disorders except
a. Autism
b. Asperger
c. ADHD
d. Rett
Answer to this aftn question: Pervasive dev disorders
are: • Infantile autism • Asperger’s syndrome (MC
boys) • Rett’s syndrome (affects only girls) • Childhood
disintegrative disorder • Pervasive dev disorder not
otherwise specified
Honeycomb exudates within alveolar spaces maybe seen
in this infection
a. Klebsiella
b. Pneumocystis
c. Seratia
d. Histoplasma
ANSWER for this evenings qn is B (pneumocystis)..... The
finding in the alveoli of a hyaline foamy granular
eosinophilic exudate with a "honeycomb" aspect on
examination of lung sections stained with haematoxylin
and eosin is a common criterion employed by pathologists
for the recognition of PCP
Endemic cardiomyopathy is a/w deficiency of
a. Iron
b. Selenium
c. Fluorine
d. Calcium
Endemic cardiomyopathy - strt. forward Q - Keshan's
disease - selenium deficiency - was also asked in UPSC
last sunday as Tkss naidu said....
which anti depressant is used topically as anti pruritic ?
a. mirtazapine
b. fluoxetine
c. doxepine
d. fluvoxamine
Doxepin cream is antipruritic
DUSN - diffuse unilatetal subacute neuroretinitis is
caused by a. cestodes b. protozoa c. nematodes d.
trematodes
DUSN - nematodes in subretina classically (AIIMS type
qn) ......such "newer" questions, pls note somewhere, so
that'll serve for 'revision' sometime - of course I have
given this in my "Quick review of Opthalmology" book
released recently.....BUT for other subjects qns make notes
within ur notes
Pseudohemoptysis may be seen in this infection
a. M . tuberculosis
b. Klebsiella
c. pseudomonas
d. serratia
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Pseudohemoptysis = serratia - red pigment - also causes
"red diaper" syndrome (hope u remember blue diaper
syndrome I had posted few weeks back)
Pseudoproptosis is seen in
a. pseudotumor orbit
b. frontal sinus mucocele
c. high myopia
d. pleomorphic lacrimal adenoma
Pseudoproptosis = high myopia - here the eyeball is larger
(more axial length) - giving a false appearance of myopia
(see if any of yr frnds have this !!)
Amitabh said "mere paas MAA hain"..... NBE took this
seriously n asked many BAAPs in NEET ..... so Who is the
baap of psychosomatic medicine ?
a. franz josef gall
b. carl jung
c. franz alexander
d. sigmund freud
Baap of psychosomatic medicine - Franz Alexander ;
Sigmund Freud is MORE famous ...YES...but he is Baap of
"psychoanalysis"
Grid iron abdomen is seen in
a. briquet syndrome
b. hypochondriasis
c. munchausen syndrome
d. body dysmorphic disorder
GRID iron abdomen is the appearance of a scarred
abdomen in Munchausen's syndrome; due to multiple
surgeries done for feigned symptoms.
Pseudosulcus vocalis is a/w
a. vocal abuse
b. tuberculosis
c. laryngoesophageal reflux
d. chronic strroid use
n laryngo-esohageal reflux, Specific findings include
laryngeal hyperemia, posterior commissure hypertrophy,
Pseudosulcus vocalis, and thick endolaryngeal mucus
Component of corpora quadrigemina is
A. Fourth ventricle
B. Medulla
C. Superior colliculus
D. Sigmoid sinus
n the brain, the CORPORA quadrigemina (Latin for
"quadruplet bodies") are the four colliculi—two inferior,
two superior—located on the tectum of the dorsal aspect
of the midbrain.
AIIMS type qn ..... Which is considered best prophylaxis
for acute postop endophthalmitis ?
a. topical gatifloxacin
b. povidone eyedrops
c. intracameral moxifloxacin
d. oral low dose prednisone for a week
Only proven accepted prophylaxis for postop
endophthalmitis is the instillation of povidone iodine
eyedrops in the conjunctival cul de sac before.
Intracameral moxifolxacin has been used but not
accepted/practciced worldwide.
Labyirynthine A. is MC a branch of
a. basilar A
b . vertebral A
c. antr inf cerebellar A
d. middle cerebral A
Labyrynthine A is a branch of AICA in majority of cases
and only occassionally from basilar A.
Dehisence of anterior wall ox external auditory canal
causes infection in parotid gland via
a. fissure of santorini
b . notch of rivinus
c. petrous fissure
d. retropharyngeal fissure
Anterior wall of extl auditory canal has two fissures /
deficiencies- called as Fissures of santorini through which
parotid or superficial mastoid infection can appear in the
canal and vice versa
Wide habenula perforata can cause problems during
which surgery ?
a. mastoidectomy
b. FESS surgery
c. stapedectomy
d. transphenoidal pituitary surgery
Habenula perforata: the openings thro which branches of
cochlear nerve enter the cochlea; if wide it can leas to
perilymph gusher is stapes surgery;
Verocay bodies maybe found in
a. glomus jugulare
b. acoustic neuroma
c. juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
d. neuroblastoma
In schwannoma (acoustic neuroma/vestibular
schwannoma), which is benign the more cellular "Antoni
A" pattern with palisading nuclei surrounding pink are
Verocay bodies.
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20 nail dystrophy maybe a/w
a. TB
b. leprosy
c. alopecia aerata
d. SLE
20 nail dystrophy a/w alopecia aerata...strt.forward....
which of the follwing is not used in treating otosclerosis
a . sodium fluoride
b . gentamicin
c . stapedectomy
d . mastoidectomy
Otosclerosis - gentamicin is used for "chemical
labyrinthectomy"; fluoride for cochlear otosclerosis;
stapedectomy of course...........as for mastoidectomy- NOT
for otosclerosis..
Lymphadenopathy in triangle of Ho falls into which stage
in TNM classification of Nasopharyngeal ca?
N0
N1
N2
N3
ome of my questions may seem "lil vague"....only with the
aim of giving u that one xtra point or extra info.......NOT
to test ur knowledge in any way....... Triangle of Ho is the
supraclavicular fossa..........In Ca nasopharynx TNM
classification, the node (N) classification is different; less
weightage is given to level 1 and 2 nodes (even 6 cm
nodes are N1 category); node enlargement of
supraclavicular fossa or Ho's triangle (triangle between
medial and lateral ends of clavicle and point where neck
meets the shoulder) is considered N3
Fukalas operation is done for
a. congenital ptosis
b. high myopia
c. bladeless lasik
d. limbal dermoid
Fukala's operation refers to clear lens extraction in high
myopia - not routinely done now since a/w retinal
detachment;
Piano key sign is seen in
a. shoulder dislocation
b. radioulnar joint instability
c. tibiofibular instability
d. rib fracture
Piano key sign: Distal radioulnar joint instability ALSO in
Floating Ulnar Head (Piano-Key Sign) in Rheumatoid
arthritis ALSO in Piano Key Sign Test (Spring Test) in
Instability of the acromioclavicular joint
This fracture has been dubbed the "unsolved fracture" for
more than a century...
A. Fracture neck of femur
B. Fracture shaft of femur
C. Vertebral fracture
D. Fracture scaphoid
UNSOLVED fracture is an eponym for intracapsular
fracture neck f femur
Which of the following IOP lowering drug causes dry
mouth
a. brimonidine
b. brinzolamide
c. tafluprost
d. timolol
Brimonidine is alfa agonist - causes DRy mouth n
DRowsiness
Regarding choanal atresia all are true except
a. mc in females
b. bony atresia mc
c. left sided mc
d. a/w CHARGE syndrome
Choanal atresia: Unilateral and MC in females on Right
side; Bony atresia is MC; CHARGE = Coloboma, Heart
defect, Atresia choanae (also known as choanal atresia),
Retarded growth and development, Genital abnormality,
and Ear abnormality.
Cattle trucking appearance is seen in
CRAO
CRVO
BRAO
BRVO
C(R)Attle trucking is seen in CRAo : segmentation of
blood column in the attenuated retinal vessels; also called
"box-carring"
MC tooth involved in oro antral fistula is
a. upper canine
b. upper central incisor
c. upper first molar
d. lower first molar
Oro-antral fistula MC due to extraction of Upper first
molar as all of u said; This is a fistulous communication
between the floor of the maxillary sinus to the oral cavity
Very commonly asked......was asked in jipmer 2013
also Melanocytes are derived from
a. surface ectoderm
b. neural ectoderm
c. neural crest
d. mesoderm
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elanocytes are of neural crest origin......very commonly
asked as I said earlier....
Most common premalignant oral lesion is
A. Leukoplakia
B. Submucus fibrosis
C. Oral Lichen planus
D. Oral hairy leukoplakia
Leukoplakia is MC premalignant oral lesion. ALSO NOTE
erythroplakia has 17 tmes malignant potential as
compared to leukoplakia
MC location for thyroglossal cyst is
A. beneath foramen cecum
B. subhyoid
C. suprahyoid
D. in floor of the mouth
Thyroglossal cyst MC site is subhyoid
Girls like long eyelashes. Which of the follwing is FDA
approved for eyelash lengthening ?
a. latanoprost
b. bimatoprost
c. travoprost
d. tafluprost
Long lashes - all PG analog eyedrops used for glaucoma
cause this along with lid skin and iris pigmentation; FDA
approved is (Latisse) - Bimatoprost;
Burnt Rope odour is a/w which poisoning
a. Hydrogen sulphide
b. Cyanide
c. Nitrobenzene
d. Cannabis
urnt rope - cannabis; H2S - rotten eggs; cyanide - bitter
almonds ; nitrobenzene - shoe polish
Cracked mud retina seen in
a. CMV retinitis
b. Acute retinal necrosis
c. Progressive outer retinal necrosis
d. Retinitis pigmentosa
Answer to this morn qn.........."cracked mud"--
PORN Progressive outer retinal necrosis (PORN), is seen
in patients who are immunocompromised (e.g., AIDS)
who present with rapid outer retinal necrosis. Multifocal
lesions with deep retinal opacification are characteristic of
PORN. The lesions can be located in the peripheral retina
with or without macular involvement. They classically
have a “cracked mud” appearance where there is
perivenular clearing of the retinal opacification
Myer-Cotton's grading is for:
A. subglottic stenosis
B. laryngeal carcinoma
C. superior nerve palsy
D. vocal cord misuse
nswer to this mornings qn..... Myers and Cotton devised a
classification scheme for grading circumferential
subglottic stenosis from I-IV, which is established
endoscopically and by using noncuffed pediatric
endotracheal tubes of various sizes and sizing the airway.
The scale describes stenosis as a percent of area that is
obstructed. The system contains 4 grades, as
follows: Grade I - Obstruction of 0-50% of the lumen
obstruction Grade II - Obstruction of 51-70% of the
lumen Grade III - Obstruction of 71-99% of the
lumen Grade IV - Obstruction of 100% of the lumen (ie, no
detectable lumen)
Splendore Hoeppli phenomenon is seen in
a. kaposi sarcoma
b. actinomycosis
c. sarcoidosis
d. SLE
Splendore-Hoeppli phenomenon (asteroid bodies) is the
in vivo formation of intensely eosinophilic material
(radiate, star-like, asteroid or club-shaped configurations)
around microorganisms (fungi, bacteria and parasites) or
biologically inert substances. The characteristic formation
of the peribacterial or perifungal Splendore-Hoeppli
reaction probably prevents phagocytosis and intracellular
killing of the insulting agent leading to chronicity of
infection. Infections that can generate Splendore-Hoeppli
reaction: 1. The fungal infections include sporotrichosis,
pityrosporum folliculitis, zygomycosis, candidiasis,
aspergillosis and blastomycosis. 2. The bacterial
infections include botryomycosis, nocardiosis and
ACTINOMYCOSIS. 3. The parasitic conditions include
orbital pythiosis, strongyloidiasis, schistosomiasis and
cutaneous larva migrans. In addition, 4. Splendore-
Hoeppli reaction may be seen with non-infective
pathology such as hypereosinophilic syndrome and
allergic conjunctival granulomas.
"To study the phenomenon of disease without books is to
sail an uncharted sea, while to study books without
patients is not to go to sea at all."
a. Sir Robert Huthcinson
b. Sir Joseph Lister
c. Sir William Osler
d. Sir Garfield Sobers
William Osler
The risk of acquiring HIV infection from a needlestick
with infected blood is approximately
a. 1:100
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b. 1:150
c. 1:300
d. 1: 500
Answer to yest nights question Risk of acquiring HIV
from needprick injury from HIV positive person is -- As
per CMDT 2013: 1:300 -- As per 18th harrison = 0.3% = 1:
300 (approx) For mucocutaneous exposure it is 0.09% !
Tropical spastic paraparesis is caused by
a. HIV 1
b. HIV 2
c. HTLV 1
d. HTLV 2
HTLV-I is the cause of two important diseases: -- Adult T
cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATL). and -- tropical spastic
paraparesis, also called HTLV-I-associated myelopathy
(HAM)
Shield cataract is seen in
a. vernal catarrh
b . atopic eczema
c. myotonic dystrophy
d. trauma
hield cataract is in atopic dermatitis Shield ulcer is in
vernal catarrh Trauma - rosette Myotonic dystrophy -
christmas tree cataract
MC intracranial space occupying lesion in HIV infected
patients is
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. Primary CNS lymphoma
c. Metastases
d. Cryptococcal meningitis
Ans to yest night qn as per CMDT 2013..... MC
intracranial SOL in AIDS is Toxoplasmosis. Second MC is
CNS lymphoma
Bulkeleys membrane is a/w
a. lichen planus
b. psoriasis
c. scabies
d. pemphigus
Bulkeley's membrane: When the scales are completely
scraped off, the stratum mucosum (basement membrane)
is exposed and is seen as a moist red surface (membrane
of Bulkeley)
MC ocular manif of HIV is
a. PORN
b. CMV. retinitis
c. Acute retinal necrosis
d. Cotton wool spots
Cotton wool spots are MC ocular manif of AIDS
MC opportunistic infection in AIDS IS
a. toxoplasmosis
b. pnemocystis
c. cryptococcosis
d. CMV
Lastly MC opportunistic infection in AIDS is
pneumocystis pneumonia.....
Pneumocystis prophylaxis should be initiated when the
CD4 percentage falls below
10%
15%
20%
25%
Answer to yest nights qn..........is 15% Pneumocystis
prophylaxis is compulsory when CD4 count < 200/microL
- we know that - its is equalt to 15% CD4 percentage (as
per Harrison's 18th; CMDT also says 14%)
MC. hematologic abnormality in HIV is
a. thrombocytopenia
b. anemia
c. eoinophilia
d. neutrophil leucocytosis
Ans to this morning's qn.................MC hematologic
abnormality in HIV infection is ANEMIA. Among the
specific reversible causes of anemia in the setting of HIV
infection are drug toxicity, systemic fungal and
mycobacterial infections, nutritional deficiencies, and
parvovirus B19 infections. ALSO KNOW: Zidovudine
causes macrocytosis
MC type of shock is
a. cardiogenic
b. neurogenic
c. hypovolemic
d. septic
MC type of shock is hypovolemic shock..... Also Know:
MC cause of septic shock is gram negative bacteremia
Banana fractures is seen in
a. Osteoporosis
b. Osteomalacia
c. Paget's disease
d. Rickets
"Banana fractures" occur in long bones affected by Paget's
disease. These cortical insufficiency fractures are so
named because they occur along the tensile (convex)
surface of the weakened and often bowed pagetoid bone,
analogous to the site where the skin of a banana would
break upon "snapping" it open. The lateral cortex of the
proximal femur is a common site for banana fractures;
conventional stress fractures (osteomalacia) of the
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proximal femur, in contrast, usually occur along the
compressive (concave) surface.
Erdheim's disease is a risk factor for
a. Acute appendicitis
b. Acute aortic dissection
c. Acute subarachnoid hemorrhage
d. Acute pancreatitis
ANS to this morn qn.......Erdheim's disease refers to cystic
medial necrosis found in Marfan's and Ehler's Danlos
syndrome - It is a risk factor for Aortic dissection........
So one more dissecting MCQ..
Inv. of choice for acute aortic dissection is
a. MRI
b. CT scan
c. ECHO
d. TEE
ANS to this evening's question:......A combo of Harrison's,
18th, CMDT 2013 and Washington manual of critical
care.... For acute aortic dissection: • A multiplanar CT
scan is the immediate diagnostic imaging modality of
choice; • Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is an
excellent diagnostic imaging method BUT it is generally
not readily available in the acute setting. • MRI is
excellent for chronic dissection; also can detect blood flow,
which may be useful in characterizing antegrade versus
retrograde dissection, BUT in the acute situation, the
longer imaging time and the difficulty of monitoring
patients in the MRI scanner make the CT scan preferable.
Pseudopapillitis is seen in
a. high myopia
b. high hypermetropia
c. high astigmatism
d. status post LASIK
ANS to yest qn is high hypermetropia....... here the optic
nerve is crowded and heaped up and gives appearance of
a blurred disc margin as would appear in true papillitis -
hence called pseudopapillitis
MC Heart diease in HIV is
a. coronary heart disease
b. dilated cardiomyopathy
c. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
d. kaposi sarcoma of heart
NS to this morning's questions:..... MC Heart diease in
HIV is coronary heart disease as per Harrison's
18th........cardiovascular disease may be a/w classic risk
factors such as smoking, a direct consequence of HIV
infection, or a complication of HAART. Patients with HIV
infection have higher levels of triglycerides, lower levels
of HDL cholesterol, and a higher prevalence of smoking
than cohorts of individuals without HIV infection.....As
per Sande's HIV/AIDS Medicine: Medical Management of
AIDS 2013: incidence of dilated cardiomyopathy has
decreased...
Which drug causes nephrolithiasis
a. zidovudine
b. indinavir
c. maraviroc
d. raltegravir
Indinavir
Sunset glow fundus appearance is seen in
a. PORN
b. Pars planitis
c. vitreous hemorrhage
d. VKH syndrome
VKH
Hang glider sign is seen in
a. scabies
b. lichen planus
c. urticaria
d. psoriasis
Hang glider sign: Scabies ---- The biting apparatus of
Sarcoptes scabiei mites and the two front pairs of legs
consist of thick dark-brown chitin layers. In low
magnification they take the shape of a dark triangle (hang
glider sign).
The risk of maternal fetal transmission in ptnt receving
anti HIV prophylaxis is
a. 2%
b. 4%
c. 6%
d. 8%
Maternal-fetal HIV transmission has been reduced to
about 1% to 2% in developed countries with Antiretroviral
treatment of the pregnant mother.
MELD score includes all except
A. Serum bilirubin
B. Serum Albumin
C. Serum Creatinine
D. INR
MELD score includes serum creatinine, Serum bilirubin
and INR...
Which antiglaucoma drug would u avoid in a ptnt who
has undergone penetrating keratoplasty
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a. timolol
b. brimonidine
c. betaxolol
d. brinzolamide
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (brinzolamide,
dorzolamide) can worsen corneal condition in post
keratoplasty patients and any cases where corneal
endothelium is suspect...
Nasolacrimal duct opens into
a. superior meatus
b. middle meatus
c. inferior meatus
d. vestibular
Nasolacrimal duct opens into Inferior meatus....why such
a simple question ......Like i always say - u HAVE to get
the simple ones ALSO right
COCA-COLA Bottle sign is seen in
a. Pseudotumor cerebri
b. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
c. Orbital myocysticercosis
d. Dacryoadenitis
ANS.............Coca cola bottle sign is seen in Thyroid eye
disease. This refers to the appearance of the orbital rectus
muscles in thyroid eye disease. The belly of the muscle
enlarges with sparing of the tendinous insertion
simulating the appearance of a traditional coke bottle.
BUT in orbital pseudotumour the tendinous insertions
are NOT spared (they are enlarged) which helps in
distinguishing between the two conditions.
Roos provocative test is use for
a. Glenoidal labrum tear
b. Thoracic outlet syndrome
c. Rotator cuff pathology
d. radioulnar instability
A diagnostic tool used in the identification of Thoracic
Outlet Syndrome (TOS) It is also known as the “elevated
arm stress test” or "EAST". The patient has both arms in
the 90° abduction-external rotation postion Shoulders and
elbows are in the frontal plane of the chest The patient is
to open and close the hands slowly over a 3-minute
period Only forearm muscle fatigue and minimal
distress Possible symptoms if TOS is present: gradual
increase in pain at neck and shoulder, progressing down
the arm Paraesthesia in forearm and fingers In case of
arterial compression: arm pallor with arm elevated,
reactive hyperemia when limb is lowered In case of
vernous compression: Cyanosis and swelling Inability to
complete test, and patient drops arms in lap in marked
distress, recognized as reproduction of usual symptoms
Aprepitant is an
a. antiulcer drug
b. anti craving drug
c. antifungal
d. antiemetic
prepitant is an anti-emetic drug - NK1 receptor anatgonist
used for chemotherapy induced vomiting and postop
vomiting
All are brain tumor associated syndromes except
a. gorlin syndrome
b. NF 2
c. MEN 2
d. Cowden syndrome
MEN 1 has pituitary adenoma and NoT MEN 2; as for
Gorlin's syndrome (has been asked in KCET before) -
Basal cell nevus syndrome- has Medulloblastomas and
Basal cell carcinoma Cowdens - Dysplastic cerebellar
gangliocytoma (Lhermitte-Duclos disease), meningioma,
astrocytoma Breast, endometrial, thyroid cancer And NF-
2 of course has vestibular schwannomas
Dapsone is used in treating
a. dermatomyositis
b. dermatitis herpetiformis
c. atopic dermatitis
d. acrodermatitis enteropathica
ANS...... Dapsone is the mainstay of treatment for
dermatitis herpetiformis along with a gluten free diet.
Tigered effect of myocardium is seen in
a. acute severe hypoxia
b. prolonged moderate hypoxia
c. amyloidosis
d. sarcoidosis
TIGERED effect: grossly apparent bands of yellowed
myocardium Iintracellular fat deposits) alternating with
bands of darker, red-brown, uninvolved heart - seen in
prolonged moderate hypoxia (as in profound anemia).
Epidemic dropsy maybe a/w all except
a. dyspnea
b. diarrhea
c. convulsions
d. pedal edema
Epidemic dropsy: Heart failure (generalised edema, lower
limb pitting edema); Dyspnea; Diarrhea; Glaucoma
(hypersecretion glaucoma)
V sign of naclerio is seen in
a. Duodenal ulcers
b. Boorhave's syndrome
c. Aortic dissection
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d. Suprapleural bleb rupture
Naclerio's V Sign : a sign described on the plain X-ray in
patients with a pneumomediastinum occurring often
secondary to an oesophageal rupture (Boerhaave's) . It is
seen as a V-shaped air collection. One limb of the V is
produced by mediastinal air outlining the left lower
lateral mediastinal border. The other limb is produced by
air between the parietal pleura and medial left
hemidiaphragm.
Zieve's syndrome includes all except
a. hyperlipidemia
b. hemolysis
c. jaundice
d. hypertension
ANS... Zieve, in 1958, described a syndrome a/ w alcohol
abuse consisting of: - jaundice, -- hyperlipidemia, and ---
transient hemolytic anemia,
Zidovudine is a/w which kind of anemia ?
a. Microcytic
b. Macrocytic
c. Hemolytic
d. Normocytic
Zidovudine macrocytic anemia.
The "sag sign" is used for which injury
a. med collateral ligament
b. latetal collateral ligament
c. postr cruciate ligament
d. antr cruciate ligament
Posterior Sag Sign used To assess for integrity of the
PCL. The posterior cruciate ligament is responsible for
resisting against excessive posterior translation of the tibia
on the femur, due to its attachments on posteriorly on the
tibial plateau and anteriorly on the lateral side of the
medial femoral condyle. In the position of 45 degrees of
hip flexion and 90 degrees of knee flexion, gravity places a
force on the tibia that pulls the tibia posteriorly, but is
blocked by an intact PCL. In the absence of a PCL, the
tibia appears to "sag."
Bexarotene gel is used in treatment of
a. Psoriasis
b. Lichen planus
c. Mycosis fungoides
d. Urticaria
ANS.....bexarotene gel (retinoid) - Cutaneous T cell
lymphoma (mycoses fungoides) ALSO KNOW: for CTCL
- electron beam therapy; romidepsin and vorinostat
(second line for CTCL)
The MC indication for heart transplantation in children
greater than 1 year of age is
a. congenital heart disease
b. cardiomyopathy
c. rheumatic heart disease
d. premature coronary heart disease
ANS..... -- MC cause of heart transplant in infants (< 1
year) = cong heart disease -- MC cause of heart transplant
in children > 1 year = cardiomyopathy (dilated
especially). -- The first pediatric heart transplant was
performed in1967 byDr. Adrian Kantrowitz three days
after the first adult heart transplant was performed by Dr
Christian Barnard
Inv of choice for primary sclerosing cholangitis is
a. MRCP
b sgot/sgpt
C. u/s
d. ct scan
ANS...... The definitive diagnosis of Pri Sclerosing
Chlanigitis requires cholangiographic imaging. Over the
last several years, MRI with magnetic resonance
cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) has been used as the
imaging technique of choice for initial evaluation. -----
Harrison 18th. (ERCP was considered gold standard but
is complicated by pancreatitis and sepsis)
As per 'Jenkins Rule', Suture Length : Wound Length
should be
2:1
4:1
6:1
8:1
Ans....for Jenkin's rule...4:1 Jenkin's Rule is a principle of
surgery relating to closure of surgical wounds. It states
that the required length of the surgical suture material for
closure of a wound with interrupted stitches is FOUR
times the length of the wound, as each bite should be 1cm
from the edge, and placed 1cm from the previous suture.
Loefflers serum slope is an example of
a. enriched media
b enrichment media
c. selective media
d. indicator media
Enriched media: Addition of extra nutrients in the form of
blood, serum, egg yolk etc, to basal medium makes them
enriched media. Enriched media are used to grow
nutritionally exacting (fastidious) bacteria. Blood agar
(streptococcus), chocolate agar (hemophilus), Loeffler’s
serum slope (C.diphtheriae) etc are few of the enriched
media.
POLO MINT sign is seen in
a. Cysticercosis
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b. Portal vein thrombosis
c. Toxoplamsosis
d. retinoblastoma
The polo mint sign is a description given to a venous
thrombosis on contrast enhanced CT imaging. When
viewed in the axial plane, a thin rim of contrast persists
around a central filling defect due to thrombus. - like
POLO mint -the 'mint with a hole'. It is orginally
described to refer to the appearances of a pulmonary
embolus on CTPA, but the appearances are the same for
any venous thrombosis, such as in the portal vein
Esophageal inlet patch consists of
a. squamous metaplasia
b. ectopic gastric mucosa
c. congenital AV malformation
d. smoking related ulceration
ANS.........Harrison's 18th......esoph inlet patch..... --
Heterotopic gastric mucosa, also known as an esophageal
inlet patch, is a focus of gastric type epithelium in the
proximal cervical esophagus -- The inlet patch is thought
to result from incomplete replacement of embryonic
columnar epithelium with squamous epithelium. -- The
majority of patches are asymptomatic, but acid production
can occur as most contain fundic type gastric epithelium
with parietal cells.
Masson Fontana Stain is used for
a. Melanin
b. Amyloid
c. Fat
d. Iron
ANS.... Fontana-Masson stain uses silver. It stains
argentaffin granules and melanin black
"Hot cross bun" sign on MRI is seen in variety of
neurodegenerative diseases (variant CJD, parkinsonism
sec to vasculitis, spinocerebellar atrophy)....in which
structure?
A. Corpus callosum
B. Lateral ventricles
C. Pons.
D. Circle of Willis
ANS...... The hot cross bun sign refers to the MRI
appearance of the pons in a variety of neurodegenerative
diseases. T2 hyperintensity forms a cross on axial images
through the pons, representing degeneration of
pontocerebellar tracts.
Andre Thomas sign is seen in
a. Radial N lesion
b. Ulnar Nerve lesion
c. Median N lesion
d. Sciatic N lesion
ANS.......Andre Thomas...............In Ulnar N palsy, as
clawing becomes more severe, finger extension becomes
more difficult. Patients sometimes flex their wrist to
extend their digits, taking advantage of extrinsic tenodesis
= André Thomas sign and is a poor prognostic indicator
for successful tendon transfers
"Coudability sign" is seen in
a. Psoriasis
b. Alopecia aerata
c. Lichen planus
d. Seborrheic dermatitis
ANS....."coudaibility sign" Proximally tapered hairs
which can be kinked easily/ bent easily resembling a bent
foley's catheter (coude catheter) - seen as a sign of alopecia
aerata....
A capsular tension ring is useful in the following situation
(during cataract surgery)
A. Posterior capsular rupture
B. Subluxated lens
C. Posterior polar cataract
D. Grade IV nuclear cataract
ANS.....capsular tension ring....B (subluxation) Used in
cases where there is zonular dialysis - especially in
trauamatic lens subluxation or any other cause of zonular
dialysis such as may occur in cataract surgery in
pseudoexfoliation syndrome
Which is a non penetrating glaucoma surgery ?
a. trabeculectomy
b. trabeculotomy
c. deep sclerectomy
d. goniotomy
Non - penetrating glaucoma surgeries (NPGS) refer to
surgeries which DO NOT penetrate/enter the anterior
chamber. The 2 newer NPGS are Deep sclerectomy and
Viscocanalostomy. These have been devised to minimise
side effects (hypotony, shallow anterior chamber) of
traditional penetrating glaucoma surgeries....
ANP32D and SENP1, have significantly increased
expression in
a. Addison's disease
b. Monge's disease
c. Caisson's disease
d. AIDS
Monge's disease (chronic mountain sickness) - increased
expression of these 2 genes have been found as per today's
news......ANP32D and SENP1,......thought maybe worth
sharing (also Monge's disease by itself is a DNB one
liner)...
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Inv of choice for pericardial effusion is
a. echo
b. CT
c. MRI
d.. Transesophageal echo
Ans......Pericardial effusion.....Inv of choice -
Echocardiography (transthoracic 2D ECHO). Trans
esophageal echo is useful in detecting loculated posterior
effusions or in postop settings where retrosternal
hematoma can impair transthoracic image quality
Emperipolesis is a distinct feature of
a. Refsum disease
b. Rosai dorfman dis
c. Mikulicz syndrome
d. Systemic sclerosis
ANS......Emperipolesis.............Rosai Dorfman Disease was
originally called sinus histiocytosis with massive
lymphadenopathy. This disease typically presents as
massive but painless bilateral cervical lymph node
enlargement accompanied sometimes by fever, in the first
two decades of life. Leucocytosis, raised ESR and
polyclonal hypergammaglobulinemia can be seen on
investigation. Microscopic examination of an affected
lymph node shows dilated sinusoids packed with foamy
histiocytes, which contain intact lymphocytes and/or
plasma cells within their cytoplasm, termed
emperipolesis. Histiocytes with emperipolesis are
considered a constant feature of great diagnostic
importance.
Dieulafoy disease due to aberrant submucosal artery in
a. esophagus
b. stomach
c. duodenum
d. large intestine
ANS.......Dieulafoy's Lesion.........Stomach...........One of you
Dr Ashish has commented that this was asked in todays
DNB aftn session......that's enuff to inspire me to keep
posting qns for the next 6 months.... ➢ Also called
persistent caliber artery, Dieulafoy's Lesionis a largecaliber
arteriole that runs immediately beneath the GI
mucosa and bleeds through a pinpoint mucosal erosion. ➢
It is seen MC on the lesser curvature of the proximal
stomach, causes impressive arterial hemorrhage, and may
be difficult to diagnose; it is often recognized only after
repeated endoscopy for recurrent bleeding.
Trofile assay n Phenoscript assay r used to find if ptnt is
susceptible to..
a. raltegravir
b. fosamprenavir
c. maraviroc
d. efavirenz
ANS.....maraviroc • The two major co-receptors for HIV-1
are CCR5 and CXCR4. Maraviroc is effective only against
CCR5 positive viruses and two assays - Trofile assay and
Phenoscript assay are used to find if the patients' virus is
susceptible to maraviroc.
Beck's triad consists of all except
a. hypotension,
b. distended neck veins
c. muffled heart sounds
d. decreased JVP
ANS.........Beck's triad............3D's -- Decreased BP
(hypotension) -- Distended neck veins (increased JVP) --
Distant heart sounds
Ibritumomab tiuxetan been used in
a. Breast cancer
b. Lung cancer
c. Prostate cancer
d. Lymphoma
ANS........NH lymphoma Radiolabelled antibodies are
currently under investigation as a means of delivering
high levels of radiation locally to the tumor bed, thereby
avoiding systemic toxicity. Ibritumomab tiuxetan is
radiolabeled antibody, FDA approved for the treatment of
relapsed low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Interface dermatitis is a characteristic feature of
a. psoriasis
b lichen planus
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. impetigo
Ans.....(B).....Lichen Planus.... Interface or lichenoid
dermatitis refers to a pattern of reaction of the skin
characterized by an inflammatory infiltrate that appears to
obscure the dermo-epidermal junction when observed at
low power examination. Lichen planus is the prototype of
interface dermatitis. Here the inflammatory infiltrate hugs
and obscures the DE unction and forms a band-like
pattern in the superficial dermis.
Iris hyperchromia is due to
a. pilocarpine
b. brimonidine
c. brinzolamide
d. bimatoprost
ANS.....Iris hyperchromia....(D) ..Bimatoprost PG analogs
(bimatoprost, latanoprost, travoprost) cause - increase in
length of lashes - Periocular hyperpigmentation - iris
hyperpigmentation - conjunctival congestion
Roflumilast is used in treatment of
a. Bronchial asthma
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b. COPD
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Erectile impotence
ANS...B....COPD Roflumilast is a selective
phosphodiesterase 4 inhibitor indicated as a treatment to
reduce the risk of COPD exacerbations in patients with
severe COPD associated with chronic bronchitis and a
history of exacerbations It is not a bronchodilator and is
not indicated for the relief of acute bronchospasm.
Rice grain calcification in brain is seen in
a. multiple sclerosis
b. atherosclerosis
c. cysticercosis
d. benign intracranial htn
ANS.....(C) ....cysticercosis The rice grain calcification is
characteristic of infection with Taenia solium
(cysticercosis); when the inflammatory response of the
host kills the larval cysts (cysticerci), they undergo
granulomatous change and become calcified.
Zebra stripe sign is seen in
a. Achondroplasia
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Osteoporosis
d. Scurvy
Zebra stripe sign...(B)...osteogenesis imp......: Zebra stripe
sign occurs where children with osteogenesis imperfecta
have been treated with cyclical bisphosphonate therapy,
e.g. pamidronate. When the drug is delivered in cycles,
dense bone is formed while treatment is being given. This
results in dense stripes across the metaphyses of bones
which can be visualised radiographically.
Cases on the rise in Bangalore schools.... Hand, Foot and
Mouth disease is caused by
A. Poliovirus
B. Coxsackie virus
C. Influenza virus
D. HIV
HFM disease (B) - Coxsackie A16 virus MC.....self limiting
illness in children.....being reported in Bangalore schools
recently/...
Cawthrone's exercise is used for
a. Ataxia
b. Vertigo
c. During Pregnancy
d. strengthening squinted ocular muscles
Ans....... Cawthorne's exercise: Vertigo Frenkel's exercise:
Ataxia Kegel's exercise: Pelvic floor strengthening in
pregnancy
Ideal body weight is used in dosage calculation for
a. suxamethonium
b. vecuronium
c bupivacaine
d. adrenaline
Drugs dosed on ideal body weight (IBW) = vecuronium;
rocuronium, remifentanil - recovery maybe prolonged
when dosed according to total body weight. Suxameth
should be dosed on Total body weight since dosing on
IBW provides inadequate paralysis.
Acne agminata is a/w
a. acne vulgaris
b. acne rosaceae
c. TB
d. steroid use
Acne agminata (lupus miliaris disseminatus faceiei) has
NO relation to TB; Oxford handbook of dermat says it is
probably a variant of granulomatous rosacea. Newer
name is FIGURE (Facial Idiopathic Granulomas with
Regressive Evolution),
STOP Bang questionnaire is for
a. chronic alcoholism
b obstructive sleep apnea
c. erectile impotence
d. bipolar disorder
STOP BANG - to screen for Obs sleep apnea ; S noring T
ired O bserved blood P ressure B MI A ge N eck
circumference G ender
Mizuo phenomenon is seen in
a . leber amaurosis
b . oguchi disease
c . best disease
d . VKH syndrome
MIZUO-Nakamura phenomenon: involves a change of
color of the fundus from red in the dark-adapted state to
golden immediately or shortly after the onset of light.
Seen in 1. Oguchi disease (congenital stationary night
blindnes)
Corona mortis is a/w which artery
a. right hepatic artery
b sup mesenteric artery
c. left gastric artery
d. accessory obturator artery
CORONA mortis: means “crown of death”. It indicates
the presence of both the normal and variant obturator
artery with extensive anastomoses. The variant vessels are
at risk of injury not only in groin surgery but also in
orthopedic surgery and pelvic fractures, and are to be
dealt with care during surgical procedures
Largest branch of celiac artery is
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A. Left gastric artery
B. Common hepatic artery
C. Splenic artery
D. Sup. mesenteric artery
Branches of celiac trunk are Common hepatic A Splenic A
(largest) Left gastric A (smallest)
DC-SIGN is encoded by
CD 29
CD 209
CD 20
CD 92
ANS.....DC SIGN....CD209......Obviously I didn't ask this
qn to test ur knowledge of ABCD.... or 1234.... .....I came
across this while updating the AIDS chapter of new Sure
Success MAGIC from H-18th and thought of sharing with
you.. DC SIGN = Dendritic Cell-Specific Intercellular
adhesion molecule-3-Grabbing Non-integrin) also known
as CD209 ; it's is a C-type lectin receptor present on the
surface of both macrophages and dendritic cells. It binds
various microorganisms by recognizing high-mannosecontaining
glycoproteins on the ICAM3 (intercellular
adhesion molecule3) of their envelopes and especially
functions as receptor for several viruses such as HIV and
Hepatitis C. Binding to DC-SIGN can promote HIV and
Hepatitis C virus to infect T-cell from dendritic cells. Thus
binding to DC-SIGN is an essential process for HIV
infection
Krukenburg spindle seen in
a. pseudoexfoliation syn
b pigment dispersion syn
c. plateau iris syn
d. ICE syndrome
Ans....(B)....Pigment disp syndrome Krukenburg spindle
refers to pigment deposition on the corneal endothelium
in the formof a spindle - seen in pigment dispersion
syndrome; also a/w iris concavity
Endothelial plaque is characteristic of
a. disciform keratitis
b. aspergillus keratitis
c. fuchs endothelial dystrophy
d. acanthameba keratitis
Ans.....(B).....Aspergillus (fungal) I