2016-05-03

@marimphil wrote:

Question booklet version - B

A 21 year old primigravida has been noted to have severe Oligohydromnios. At birth the baby has an abnormal looking face with low set ears and receding chin. Which of the following findings is most likely to explain this deformation?
a. Intrauterine toxoplasma infection.
b. B/L renal agenesis.
c. Tracheal stenosis.
d. Imperforate anus.

In a family of 10 over 3 generations, 3 adult males and 1 adult female are mentally retarded. Examination of these males reveal no major abnormality though their testes appear to be slightly enlarged. Which of the following genetic abnormalities is the most likely?
a. Klinefelter’s syndrome.
b. Gaucher’s disease.
c. XYY karyotype.
d. Fragile X syndrome.

A ten year old child has joints that show marked hypermobility and her skin is hyperextensible. Her height and weight are at the 50th percentile. These features are most consistent with which of the following?
a. Ehler-Danlos syndrome.
b. Marfan’s syndrome.
c. Von-Recklinghausen disease.
d. Osteogenesis imperfect.

A 4 year old boy has been brought with progressive increasing inability to walk and stand since 3 days. He had an URTI about 2 weeks ago from which he recovered completely. On examination he is conscious and awake. He has B/L LMN facial paralysis, B/L LL weakness with hypotonia and decreased reflexes. Sensory system is intact. Most probable diagnosis is
a. GB syndrome
b. Myaesthenia Gravis.
c. Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome.
d. Hypokalemic paralysis.

The following chronic kidney disease in children has X linked inheritance
a. “Finnish” congenital nephritic syndrome.
b. PKD
c. Alport syndrome
d. Nephronophthisis

‘Blunted affect’ is commonly seen in
a. Schizophrenia
b. Depression
c. Delirium
d. Anxiety

Criteria for panic attack include all EXCEPT
a. Palpitations
b. Illusions
c. Sweating
d. Trembling

Therapeutic serum Lithium level is
a. 0.2 – 0.5 m.Eq/L
b. 0.5 – 0.7 m.Eq/L
c. 0.8 – 1.2 m.Eq/L
d. 1.5 – 2 m.Eq/L

Following is a vitamin D3 analogue
a. Tazorotene
b. Dithranol
c. Calcipotriol
d. Alitretinoin

ENL is a
a. Type 1 Hypersensitivity reaction
b. Type 2 HSR
c. Type 3 HSR
d. Type 4 HSR

Inferior rib notching is seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
a. Coarctation of aorta
b. Subclavian artery occlusion
c. SVC & IVC obstruction
d. Neurofibromatosis.

In which of the following conditions the lead pipe appearance of the colon on a Barium enema is seen ?
a. Amoebiasis
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. TB colon
d. Crohn’s disease.

Following statements are true regarding pneumoperitoneum
a. Can be detected in 76% of cases using an erect film only.
b. When left lateral decubitus position is included, can be demonstrated in 90% of cases.
c. Not seen if there is sealing of perforation or lack of gas at the site of perforation.
d. All of the above are correct.

Natural response to injury includes all EXCEPT
a. Rest.
b. Anabolism.
c. Catabolism.
d. Anorexia.

Secondary hemorrhage after surgery occurs
a. Immediately.
b. Within 24 hours
c. On second day
d. 7 – 14 days.

True statement regarding clostridium tetani is
a. It’s a gram negative coccus
b. Releases tetanospasmin
c. Causes gas gangrene
d. Releases lecithinase.

Amoeboma is
a. An acute condition
b. Carcinoma caused by entamoeba
c. A chronic granuloma
d. Liver abscess

Typhoid perforation typically occurs in
a. Duodenum
b. Ileum
c. Jejunum
d. Appendix

Plain X-ray abdomen showing double-bubble is seen in
a. Esophageal atresia
b. Diaphragmatic hernia
c. Meckel’s diverticulum
d. Duodenal atresia.

TRUE statement regarding catgut is
a. It’s non-absorbable
b. Obtained from cat intestine
c. Tissue reaction is high.
d. Can not transmit prion.

Triage is
a. A concept in trauma
b. A method of breast lump diagnosis
c. An investigation for duodenum and pancreas
d. Management of old age health problems

Normal intracranial pressure is
a. 4 – 8 mmHg
b. 8 – 12 mmHg
c. 14 – 16 mmHg
d. 17 – 20 mmHg

Cafe – au –lait spots are
a. Single
b. Coffee coloured papules
c. More common in white skinned race
d. Associated with McCune – Albright syndrome.

Regarding BCC, which is FALSE?
a. Slow growing
b. Caused by UV light
c. Metastasis to lymph nodes.
d. 90% are nodular or nodulocystic

Following are risk factors for head and neck cancers EXCEPT
a. Tobacco
b. Alcohol
c. Herpes zoster
d. HPV

MC tumour of parotid gland is
a. Adenolymphoma
b. Pleomorphic adenoma
c. Acinic cell carcinoma
d. Oncocytoma

Following are the signs in acute appendicitis EXCEPT
a. Pointing sign
b. Rovsing sign
c. Psoas sign
d. Boas sign

MC site of Ca.Colon
a. Rectum
b. Descending colon
c. Ascending colon
d. Caecum

The following injuries refer to the fracture of the distal radius EXCEPT
a. Colle’s #
b. Chauffer’s #
c. Bennet’s #
d. Barton’s #

A positive Trendlenberg test is seen in case of
a. Tethered cord syndrome
b. Developmental dysplasia of hip
c. Ankylosed hip
d. Congenital talipes equino varus

Lengthening of the bone achieved by slow traction of 0.25 mm/day at the growth plate without an osteotomy in children is known as
a. Bone transport
b. Callotasis
c. Chondrodiatasis
d. Osteosynthesis

Multiple hemangiomata in association with enchondomatosis is referred to as
a. Mafucci syndrome
b. Ollier’s disease
c. Engelmann’s disease
d. Alber-schonberg disease

Kanavels signs of flexor sheath infection are all EXCEPT
a. Flexed posture of the digit
b. Pain on passive extension of digit
c. Pain on passive flexion of digit
d. Pain on active flexion of digit

Sugammadex acts as a selective relaxant binding agent for all EXCEPT
a. Rocuronium
b. Vecuronium
c. Pancuronium
d. Atracurium

The following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation EXCEPT
a. Controlled mechanical ventilation (CMV)
b. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)
c. Pressure support ventilation (PSV)
d. Assist-control ventilation (ACV)

Perimetry is a technique used to examine the
a. Visual acuity
b. Contrast sensitivity
c. Visual fields
d. Color vision

“Haab striae” is a feature of
a. Keratoconus
b. Buphthalmos
c. Primary open angle glaucoma
d. Neovascular glaucoma

All the following are the features of optic neuritis EXCEPT
a. Disc edema
b. RAPD
c. Fine vitreous opacities
d. Normal vision

Battle sign is seen in
a. Acute mastoiditis
b. Furuncle in the ear
c. # of the temporal bone
d. Atresia of the ear canal

Dolhman’s operation is done in
a. Tracheal stenosis
b. Thyroglossal cyst
c. Zenker’s diverticulum
d. Trachea-esophageal fistula.

All the following are causes of primary amenorrhea EXCEPT
a. Mullerian agenesis
b. Ashermann’s syndrome
c. Testicular feminizing syndrome
d. Turner’s syndrome.

Menopausal symptoms are treated by all the following drugs EXCEPT
a. Estrogens
b. Progesterones
c. SERMs
d. Soya preparations

The development of the uterus is from the
a. Paramesonephric duct
b. Genital ridge
c. Woolfian duct
d. Urogenital sinus

Wertheim’s radical hysterectomy is recommended for
a. Cancer cervix stage 3 and 4
b. Cancer cervix stage 1 and 2a
c. Ovarian cancer
d. Early stage endometrial cancer.

Tumour marker for placental site trophoblastic tumour is
a. B-HCG
b. CA-125
c. AFP
d. Human placental lactogen (HPL)

The most important diameter of pelvic inlet is
a. Diagonal conjugate
b. True conjugate
c. Interspinous diameter
d. Obstetric conjugate

The plan of treatment in case of major type placenta previa is
a. Caesarian section
b. Allow for vaginal delivery
c. Inductionof labour with oxytocin
d. Induction of labour with PGE2 gel

The most important etiological factor for pre-term labour is
a. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Increased physical activity
c. HIV infection
d. Multiparity

All the following are complications of severe PIH, EXCEPT
a. Abruptio placenta
b. Retinal detachment
c. ARF
d. Placenta previa

RDS is common in
a. Preterm babies
b. IUGR babies
c. Post term babies
d. Term babies

The artery accompanying axillary nerve in the quadrangular space is
a. Anterior circumflex humeral
b. Posterior circumflex humeral
c. Circumflex scapular
d. Subscapular

All of the following are tributaries of great saphenous vein EXCEPT
a. Small saphenous vein
b. Superficial epigastric
c. Superficial circumflex iliac
d. Superficial external pudendal

Which of the following is devoid of mascular attachment?
a. Frontal bone
b. Parietal bone
c. Talus
d. Cuboid

The binding of acetylcholine to cardiac muscurinic cholinergic receptors causes a decrease in the heart rate that results from an increase in which one of the following?
a. Calcium influx
b. Potassium influx
c. Sodium influx
d. Chloride efflux

The adrenal medulla secretes
a. Dopamine
b. Epinephrine
c. Norepinephrine
d. All of these

The ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid at pH 7.4 is
a. 18
b. 20
c. 22
d. 24

Which of the following amino acid modification requires the activity of vitamin K?
a. Glutamate to gamma carboxyglutamate
b. Lysine to hydroxylysine
c. Lysine to epsilon-methyllysine
d. Proline to hydroxyproline

VMA is a catabolic end product of
a. Catecholamines
b. Melanin
c. Melatonin
d. Serotonin

The following statement is NOT TRUE about primaquine, that is
a. Has gametocidal effect
b. Is a potent erythrocytic schizontocide
c. Destroys the hypnozoites
d. Can cause hemolysis in people whose RBCs lack G- 6 – PD

The following drugs act by inhibiting ergosterol synthesis in fungal cell membrane
a. Amphotericin – B
b. Terbinafine
c. Flucytocine
d. Griseofulvin

The following anti-diarrhoeal is an enkephalinase inhibitor
a. Loperamide
b. Diphenoxylate
c. Codeine
d. Racecadotril

The following drug is NOT useful to treat bipolar maniac depressive illness
a. Fluoxetine
b. Lithium
c. Carbamazepine
d. Lamotrigine.

The following anticholinergic drug is preferred in preanaesthetic medication
a. Oxybutynin
b. Benzhexol
c. Ipratropium
d. Glycopyrrolate

Staphylococcus aureus has a well established association with
a. Toxic shock syndrome
b. Water can perineum
c. Urethritis
d. Sore throat

Lepromin test is used in the following EXCEPT
a. Classify the lesions of leprosy patients.
b. Determine the prognosis of the disease
c. Assess the resistance of individuals to therapy
d. Diagnosis of leprosy.

Zoonotic disese if viral etiology include
a. Q fever
b. Chlamydiae infection
c. Rabies
d. Rubella

Rheumatic fever in man is caused by
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Clostridium difficle
c. Staph. Aureus
d. E. Coli

Ergotism is due to the toxic alkaloids produced by the fungus
a. Trichophytan
b. Claviceps purpurea
c. Fusarium species
d. Absidia

All are cell derived chemical mediators of inflammation EXCEPT
a. Histamine
b. Bradykinin
c. PAF
d. Leukotriene B4

All are oncogenic DNA viruses EXCEPT
a. HBV
b. HIV
c. EBV
d. HPV

Most common germ cell tumor of testis
a. Embryonal carcinoma
b. Yolksac tumor
c. Seminoma
d. Teratoma

Nephritic syndrome is characterised by all EXCEPT
a. Massive protienuria
b. Anasarca
c. Hematuria
d. Hyperlipidemia

Gleason’s score is useful in histologic prognostic factor for
a. Infiltrating ductal ca.
b. Prostatic adenoca.
c. RCC
d. Malignant melanoma

The term “Corpus delecti” refers to
a. The body of the victim
b. The body of the criminal offence
c. The body of the accused
d. Dead body that is ready for autopsy.

The reagent used to detect presence of vaginal cells on the penis of an accused in a rape case is
a. Lugol’s iodine
b. Phenolphthalein test
c. Orthotoludine test
d. Benzidine

The immediate goal of national population policy 2000 is one of the following
a. Achieve total fertility rate of 2.1 by 2010
b. Expand public health infrastructure.
c. Meet unmet needs of contraception.
d. One stop integrated service at village level.

According to Maslow’s hierarchy needs, one of the following is at the top of the pyramid
a. Physical needs
b. Self actualization
c. Safety
d. Esteem recognition

KISHORI SHAKTI YOJANA has been redesigned to improve the health status of one of the following
a. Under five children
b. Adult males
c. Adolescent girls
d. Senor citizens

The additional component of UIP plus DOES NOT include one of the following
a. Hepatitis B vaccination
b. ARI
c. Safe motherhood
d. Diarrhoea

One of the following is also known as tuberculosis conversion index
a. Prevalence of the disease
b. Prevalence of infection
c. Incidence of disease
d. Incidence of infection

“BEINGS” model of disease causation, DOES NOT include one of the following factors
a. Spiritual factors
b. Social factors
c. Religious factors
d. Service factors

To avoid nosocomial infections, the minimum distance between the centre of adjacent beds should be
a. 2 meters
b. 2 feet
c. 2.5 meters
d. 2.5 feet

One of the following is not a criteria for calling leprosy bacilli as solid rods
a. Uniform staining
b. Parallel sides
c. Clean ends
d. Length 5 times that of width

Globally, the MC cancer is one of the following
a. Colorectal ca.
b. Oro-pharyngeal ca.
c. Lung ca.
d. Bladder ca.

The main cause of farmer’slung is due to one of the following organism
a. Pneumococcus
b. Micropolyspora faeni
c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d. Staphylococcus aureus

Rheumatoid factor is
a. An antibody directed against Fc fraction of IgM
b. Is a usefull screening test for RA
c. Is a specific test for diagnosis of RA
d. A usefull test for prognosis

Pulsus paradoxus can occur in all these conditions EXCEPT
a. Pericardial tamponade
b. HOCM
c. SVC obstruction
d. Acute severe asthma

A patient is found to have distension of JVP during inspiration. This can occur in
a. Constrictive pericarditis
b. AF
c. TR
d. PS

Which of these is NOT much beneficial on routine use in secondary prevention of strokes?
a. Antiplatelet drugs
b. Statins
c. Anticoagulants
d. Antihypertensives

Which among these malignancies is LEAST likely to cause tumour necrosis syndrome during Rx?
a. Burkitt’s lymphoma
b. Chronic leukaemia
c. ALL
d. Solid tumors

The criteria included in Child – Pugh classification of prognosis in cirrhosis include all EXCEPT
a. Encephalopathy
b. Bilirubin
c. Ascites
d. Proteins

Campbell de Morgan spots (Cherry angioma) over the abdomen
a. Suggests a gastric malignancy
b. Can occur in IVC obstruction
c. Is a feature of acute pancreatitis
d. Is a benign finding in elderly

A Raccoon or Panda eyes is a sign of
a. Skull base #
b. SAH
c. CO poisoning
d. Grave’s disease

A dyspneic patient’s ABG analysis reveal: PaO2 50mm of Hg & PaCO2 35mm of Hg. This ABG can occur in all of these EXCEPT
a. Pulmonary edema
b. Pneumothorax
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Narcotic overdose

Which of these is NOT TRUE regarding tropical sprue?
a. Presents with chronic diarrohea and malabsorption
b. Caused by an unknown infective agent
c. Thiamine supplements improve jejuna morphology
d. Prolonged tetracycline therapy ensures complete recovery.

Which of these is NOT an AIDS defining illness?
a. Oral hairy leukoplakia
b. Chronic mucocutaneous herpes simplex
c. Cryptococcus meningitis
d. Cerebral toxoplasmosis

Which of this drug is given in amoebiasis to eliminate luminal cyst?
a. Ornidazole
b. Nitazoxanide
c. Diloxanide furoate
d. Metronidazole

Which of these X-Ray findings is NOT correctly matched?
a. Pencil – in – cup : Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Rib notching : Coarctation of aorta
c. Looser’s zones : Osteomalacia
d. Boot shaped heart : TOF

The MC congenital hyperbilirubinemia is
a. Dubin – Johnson syndrome
b. Gilbert’s syndrome
c. Crigler – Najjar syndrome
d. Rotor’s syndrome

Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration is most commonly found in association with
a. Bronchogenic Ca.
b. Lymphoma
c. Ovarian Ca.
d. Hepatoama

A 32 year old woman delivered a baby of 30 weeks gestation and birth weight 1.3 kg at 4 hrs of life, baby started to exhibit increasing respiratory difficulty, ultimately needing intubation and ventilation. Chest X-ray shows opacification of lungs with air bronchogram. Which of the following tests during pregnancy is most likely to predict this complication?
a. Maternal serum alpha protein
b. Lecithin sphingomyelin ratio on amniotic fluid
c. TORCH titres on maternal blood
d. Chromosome analysis on chorionic villus sampling.

A 21 year old woman has a screen USG which reveals marked polyhydramnios. Which of the following abnormality is MOST LIKELY to be present?
a. Small intestinal atresia
b. Renal agenesis
c. VSD
d. CMV infection

A 25 year old mother notes that her 18 month old child is not keeping up with the normal growth curve for the past 5 months. The child has not been feeding well, and has some abnormal seizure like activity. The baby has a palpable firm upper quadrant mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. PKD
b. Neuroblastoma
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Galactosemia

Differential diagnosis for microcytic hypochromic anemia can be all of the following EXCEPT
a. Cu deficiency
b. Sideroblastic anemia
c. Lead poisoning
d. Hypothyroidism

Laboratory diagnosis of Vitamin D deficiency is based on
a. Decreased 25(OH)D3 levels
b. Decrease 1, 25, (OH)D3 levels
c. Increase Alkaline phosphatise levels
d. Decrease calcium phosphorus ratio

‘Sundowning’ is typically seen in
a. Depression
b. Delirium
c. Dementia
d. Alcoholism

All are TRUE about Anorexia Nervosa EXCEPT
a. MC age of onset is 14 – 18 years.
b. Occurs in 1% of adolescent girls
c. 10 -20 times MC in males
d. Depression is very common in the dubjects.

‘Bamboo hair’ is synonymous with
a. Trichorrhexis invaginata
b. Trichorrhexis nodosa
c. Pseudo monilethrix
d. Trichothiodystrophy

Darrier’s sign is positive in
a. Psoriasis vulgaris
b. Urticaria pigmentosa
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Histoid leprosy

Condyloma acuminatum is seen in infection with
a. Treponema pallidum
b. HPV
c. HSV
d. Hemophilus ducrey

All of the following statements are TRUE regarding Bohdalek hernia EXCEPT
a. It is congenital, presenting at birth as respiratory distress
b. Left sided and posterolateral
c. Right sided and anterior
d. Ipsilateral lung is invariably hypoplastic

Which of the following imaging modalities uses piezoelectric crystals?
a. USG
b. MRI
c. Xeroradiography
d. Nuclear scintigraphy

Neuroendocrine response to injury is
a. Biphasic
b. Triphasic
c. Non-phasic
d. Erratic

In which type of shock cardiac output is high?
a. Hypovolemic
b. Cardiogenic
c. Distributive
d. Obstructive

Regarding the keloid scar, which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. Has more type A collagen.
b. Etiology is unknown
c. It has an inherited tendency
d. More common in certain areas of the body.

Bacteria involved in surgical infection include all EXCEPT
a. Streptococci
b. Staphylococci
c. Haemophilus
d. Clostridia

Asiatic cholangiohepatitis is caused by
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Wuchereria bancrofti
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Brugia timori

Which of the following is FALSE regarding inguinal hernia in children?
a. MC in boys
b. 1:50 boys have hernia
c. 40% are bilateral
d. MC in premature born

In a patient with recent MI, elective surgeries can be done in
a. 1 month
b. 6 months
c. 3 months
d. Not at all.

Risk factors for DVT include all EXCEPT
a. old age
b. cancer
c. obesity
d. Mobilization

TRUE statement regarding GCS is
a. Total score is 16
b. Score of 3 – 8 indicates moderate head injury
c. Eyes opening to painful stimuli gets a score of 2
d. No motor response is 0

Maxillary #s are classified by
a. Pott
b. Kocher
c. Leforte
d. Colles

Bournevilles disease is
a. Tuberous sclerosis
b. Trichoepithelioma
c. Tricholemmoma
d. Pilomatrixoma

Single most important prognostic index in melanoma is
a. Clarke staging
b. Breslow staging
c. Ulceration
d. Nodal metastasis

Salivary tumours are MC in
a. Parotid
b. Submandibular
c. Sublingual
d. Minor salivary glands.

TRUE statement regarding medullary carcinoma of thyroid is
a. Arises from follicular cells
b. It is a benign condition
c. Accounts for 5% of thyroid cancers
d. Associated with MEN1

Following are the procedures for rectal prolapsed EXCEPT
a. Thiersh operation
b. Delormes operation
c. Ripstein operation
d. Duhamel operation

Among the various techniques described the following are used for closed reduction of anterior dislocation of shoulder EXCEPT
a. Stimson’s technique
b. Kocher’s technique
c. Jones manoeuvre
d. Hippocrates method

Following clinical presentation is NOT suggestive of tension pneumothorax
a. Absent breath sounds on either side of pneumothorax
b. Trachea deviated to the opposite side with hyper-resonance on the side of pneumothorax.
c. Trachea deviated to the same side with hyper-resonance on the opposite side of the pneumothorax.
d. Engorged neck veins

Appley’s grinding test, Mc-Murry’s test and Thessaly test are clinical tests for diagnosing
a. Meniscal injury
b. ACL injury
c. Rotator cuff impingement
d. Medial collateral ligament injury

All the following are TRUE with respect to fat embolism syndrome EXCEPT
a. Early signs are fever, tachycardia, and dyspnea
b. Confusion and restlessness
c. Early stabilization of # and high inspired oxygen is mainstay of Rx
d. Early signs are hypothermia, hypotension and bradycardia

Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid is
a. Prieser’s disease
b. Kienbock’s disease
c. Sever’s disease
d. Osgood Schlatter’s disease

Which of the following is TRUE regarding suxamethonium?
a. Two molecules of Ach linked through the acetate methyl group
b. Hydrolysis by acetylcholinesterase
c. Elimination halflife is estimated to be 20 seconds
d. Raise the serum potassium by 5.0mmol/L

The following drugs readily cross the placenta EXCEPT
a. Lidocaine
b. Bupivacaine
c. Propranolol
d. Glycopyrrolate

The laryngeal mask airways used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
a. Difficult airway management
b. In cardiopulmonary resuscitation
c. Pediatric herniotomy
d. Large oral cavity tumour

Fleischer ring is seen in
a. Keratoglobus
b. Band shaped keratopathy
c. Terrien marginal degeneration
d. Keratoconus

“Cattle truck” appearance is seen in
a. CRVO
b. CRAO
c. Diabetic retinopathy
d. Eale’s disease

All the following vessels take part in formation of Kiesselbach’s plexus EXCEPT
a. Inferior labial artery
b. Sphenopalatine artery
c. Anterior ethmoidal artery
d. Greater palatine artery

Otoacoustic emissions are produced by
a. Inner hair cells
b. Outer hair cells
c. Basilar membrane
d. Auditory nerve

Dysphagia lusoria is due to
a. Esophageal diverticulum
b. Aneurysm of aorta
c. Esophageal web
d. Compression of esophagus by aberrant blood vessel.

Mini pill is recommended as a contraception of choice for
a. Elderly women
b. Obese women
c. Lactating women
d. Women with menstrual irregularities

All the following are causes of genital fistulae EXCEPT
a. Obstructed labour
b. Radiotherapy for genital malignancies
c. Following hysterectomy
d. Following chemotherapy

The following is very characteristic of malignant ovarian tumour
a. Presence f a large cyst
b. History of menstrual symptoms
c. Presence of solid areas with thick septae
d. Absence of free fluid

The DOC for anovulatory DUB is
a. Cyclical progesterone therapy
b. Cyclical estrogen therapy
c. Antifibrinolytic drugs
d. Haematinics

The Rx for uterine prolapsed during pregnancy is
a. Le Fort’s repair
b. Ward Mayos operation
c. Pessary Rx
d. Shirodkar’s operation

Engagement of fetal head is defined as
a. Head occupies the lower pole of the uterus
b. Head appears at the outlet b/w contractions
c. Biparietal diameter passes through the pelvic inlet.
d. Saggital suture passes through the pelvic inlet

All the following statements are TRUE for multiple pregnancy EXCEPT
a. Anaemia and pre-eclampsia are commonly seen
b. Malpresentations are rare in multiple pregnancy
c. Preterm labour is common in multiple pregnancy
d. Commonly seen in women receiving ovulation induction drugs

The MC cause of 1st trimester abortion is
a. Acute pyrexial illness
b. Uterine abnormalities
c. Chromosomal abnormalities
d. Cervical incompetence

The following drugs are used to control atonic PPH, EXCEPT
a. Oxytocin injection
b. Ergometrine
c. Injection PGF2 alpha
d. Tocolytic drugs

Shoulder dystocia is a common complication of
a. Diabetic pregnancy
b. Multiple pregnancy
c. Molar pregnancy
d. Post term pregnancy

Multipolar neurons are found in
a. Retina
b. Spinal ganglion
c. Sympathetic ganglion
d. Trigeminal nerve ganglion

Commonest type of female pelvis is
a. Android
b. Gynecoid
c. Platypelloid
d. Anthropoid

Akinesia, rigidity and tremor are features of
a. Tabes dorsalis
b. Syringomyelia
c. Paralysis agitans
d. Sham rage

Satiety centre in hypothalamus is located in
a. Ventromedial nucleus
b. Lateral nucleus
c. Paraventricular nucleus
d. Preoptic nucleus

Ionic basis of excitatory post synaptic potential is
a. Entry of Na+ ions
b. Exit of Na+ ions
c. Exit of K+ ions
d. Entry of Cl- ions

The major heteropolysaccharide present in synovial fluid is
a. Chondritin sulphate
b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Keratin sulphate
d. Dermatan sulphate

The vitamins that are particularly needed for the biosynthesis of DNA are
a. Ascorbic acid and cobalamine
b. Folic acid and pyridoxine
c. Folic acid and cobalamin
d. Pyridoxine and cobalamine

Metronidazole is clinically used in the following conditions EXCEPT
a. Dracunculosis
b. Anaerobic infections
c. Neurocysticercosis
d. Eradication of H.pylori

The following anti-retroviral drugs prevents the fusion of HIV with CD4 cells
a. Zidovudine
b. Nevirapine
c. Enfuviritide
d. Indinavir

The following anti-TB drug is known to cause optic neuritis
a. Ethambutol
b. Rifampicin
c. Isoniazid
d. Pyrazinamide

The following statement is NOT TRUE about LMWH, that
a. Their use is associated with higher incidence of hemorrhagic complications
b. Their dose is calculated on body weight basis
c. They are used to treat DVT
d. They have better SC bioavailability than unfractionated heparin

The following drugs stimulate uterine contractions, EXCEPT
a. Mifepristone
b. Progesterone
c. Ergometrine
d. Misoprostol

Killed whole organisms are used in vaccines for the prevention of
a. Tetanus
b. TB
c. Typhoid
d. Diphtheria

Most serious complication of measles include
a. Koplik’s spot
b. Parotitis
c. Meningoencephalitis
d. Nephritis

Hard chancre is produced by
a. H.ducreyi
b. T.pallidum
c. M.uralyticum
d. T.pertenue

Which of the following is NOT a transport medium?
a. Stuart’s medium
b. Cary – Blair medium
c. Amie’s medium
d. Thayer Martin medium

Katayama fever is produced due to infection by
a. Clonorchis
b. Fasciola hepatica
c. Fasciolopsis buski
d. Scistosoma japonicum

Ischemic injury in the brain is an example for
a. Coagulative necrosis
b. Caseous necrosis
c. Liquefactive necrosis
d. Fibrinoid necrosis

Patau syndrome refers to
a. Trisomy 18
b. Trisomy 13
c. Trisomy 21
d. 45XO

Hypersegmented neutrophil in peripheral blood smear is seen in
a. Hereditary spherocytosis
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. SCA
d. Megaloblastic anemia

Diaphyseal bony tumour with onion peel appearance on X – Ray. the possible diagnosis is
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Osteoclastoma
c. Ewing’s sarcoma
d. Metastasis

Neurofibrillary tangles are seen in
a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Parkinsonism
c. Pick’s disease
d. Multiple sclerosis

The term “mercy killing” is often used as a synonym for
a. Justifiable homicide
b. Excusable homicide
c. Euthanasia
d. Abetment of suicide

Which of the following is NOT a component of medical negligence?
a. Duty owed to the patient
b. Dereliction of duty
c. Damage to the patient
d. Error of judgement in diagnosis

En – masses removal of viscera in autopsy is called as
a. Technique of R Virchow
b. Technique of A Ghon
c. Technique C Rokitansky
d. Technique M Litulle

Under ESI one of the following benefit is NOT given in cash
a. Sickness benefit
b. Medical benefit
c. Maternity benefit
d. Dependent benefit

Line listing of reported cases of AFP is done for all following reasons EXCEPT
a. To check for duplication
b. To confirm year of onset of illness
c. To document high risk groups
d. To identify high risk population

In biostatistics, frequency polygon can be easily derived from one of the following
a. Pictogram
b. Line chart
c. Scatter diagram
d. Histogram

When the relative risk is 1, which one of the following is TRUE?
a. There is no cause effect relationship
b. There is an alpha error
c. There is type 1 error
d. None of these

Global eradication of small pox was declared by WHO on one of the following dates
a. 26th October 1977
b. 5th July 1975
c. 17th May 1975
d. 8th May 1980

When the number of observations is 25, approximate number of class intervals is,
a. 25
b. 15
c. 10
d. 5

Pellagra in jowar eating population is because of
a. Niacin occurring in bound form
b. Excess of leucine
c. Defieciency of tryptophan
d. High consumption of milk and milk products

One of the following type of malaria has a tendency to cause prolonged low level and asymptomatic parasitaemia
a. P.vivax
b. P.falciparum
c. P.malariae
d. P.ovale

Case detection in STDs includes all of the following techniques EXCEPT
a. Screening
b. Cluster testing
c. Contact tracing
d. Notification

In health economics, cost benefit analysis is an example of one of the following
a. Critical path method
b. Planning evaluation & review technique
c. Management by objectives
d. Total quality management

Which of these is NOT TRUE with regard to anemia of renal disease?
a. Is a hypoproliferative anemia
b. Degree of anemia does not correlate with severity of renal failure
c. Anemia is normocytic, normochromic type
d. Reticulocyte count is decreased.

The most specific screening test for vitamin D deficiency is
a. 7 – dehydrocholesterol
b. 25 – hydroxyl vitamin D
c. 1, 25 – dihydroxy Vitamin D
d. Serum calcium level

The characteristic features of rabies include all of these EXCEPT
a. Can be transmitted by animal bites other than dogs
b. Hematogenous spread to brain
c. Can manifest as ascending paralysis
d. Is invariably fatal

Clinical features or Turner’s syndrome include all of these EXCEPT
a. Tall stature
b. Aortic root dilatation
c. Webbing of neck
d. High arched palate.

Post exposure prophylaxis is available for all these exposures EXCEPT
a. Measles
b. Hepatitis – C
c. HIV
d. Varicella zoster

All of these are features of thyrotoxicosis in the elderly EXCEPT
a. AF
b. Goitre with bruit
c. Cardiac failure
d. Bulbar myopathy

Which of these is NOT TRUE regarding CML?
a. Is a myeloproliferative stem cell disorder
b. Splenomegaly is present in 90% of cases
c. Lymphadenopathy is an uncommon feature
d. Usually transforms into ALL.

A 50 year old chronic alcoholic is Ataxic, has B/L lateral rectus palsy, disoriented and restless. The likely diagnosis is
a. Brain stem hemorrhage
b. Encephalitis
c. Wernicke – Korsakoff syndrome
d. Alcoholic intoxication

Which of this complication is specific to Crohn’s disease?
a. Toxic megacolon
b. Fistulas
c. Hemorrhage
d. Colonic cancer

Which of this is NOT TRUE in case of Dengue fever?
a. Aedes aegypti is the principal vector
b. Serotype 4 is more dangerous than other serotypes
c. Breakbone fever is characteristic
d. Tourniquet test will be positive

Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap occurs in all the following conditions EXCEPT
a. DKA
b. Starvation ketosis
c. Methanol poisoning
d. RTA

Which of these cancers is LEAST likely to cause hypercalcemia?
a. Breast
b. Prostate
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Non – small cell lung carcinoma

Which of these is a potassium sparing diuretic?
a. Acetazolamide
b. Metolazone
c. Inadapamide
d. Eplerenone

Poor prognostic indicators in Rheumatoid arthritis include all of these EXCEPT
a. Explosive onset
b. Female sex
c. Normocytic, normochromic anemia
d. X – rays with early erosive damage

Which of this insulin analogue is NOT a rapid – acting insulin?
a. Lispro
b. Detemir
c. Aspart
d. Glulisine

Answer Key with references as uploaded on http://www.nitte.edu.in

B

Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics Seventeenth Edition

Chapter 529 Page 1783

D

Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics Seventeenth Edition , Chapter 578 Page
930

A

Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics Seventeenth Edition, Chapter 649 Page
2207

A

OP Ghai Essential Paediatrics Seventh edition ,Chapter17 page 554

C

OP Ghai Essential Paediatrics Seventh edition, Chapter 15 page 471

A

COMPREHENSIVE TEXT BOOK OF PSYCHIATRY –SYNOPSIS, 10th
Edition. Kaplan & addock

B

COMPREHENSIVE TEXT BOOK OF PSYCHIATRY –SYNOPSIS, 10th Edition.
Kaplan & addock

C

COMPREHENSIVE TEXT BOOK OF PSYCHIATRY –SYNOPSIS, 10th Edition.
Kaplan & addock

C

IADVL Text Book of Dermatology,3rd edition,page no.1044

C

IADVL Text Book of Dermatology,3rd edition,page no.2048

D

Text book of Radiology and Imaging, Vol-I, David Sutton, pg: 48, Churchill
Livingstone, 7th Edn, 2003

B

Radiology Review Manual, Wolfgang Dahnert, pg: 873, Lippincott Williams &
Wilkins, 6th Edn, 2009

D

Text book of Radiology and Imaging, Vol-I, David Sutton, pg: 666, Churchill
Livingstone, 7th Edn, 2003

B

FcROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDdITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.5

D

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.19

B

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.38

D

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.50

B

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.69

D

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.85

C

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.236

A

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J. K.Page No.286

B

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.307

D

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.604

C

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.609

C

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.734

B

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.762

D

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.1207

A

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.1179

C

Bennett’s fracture

Reference: Apley’s system of orthopedics and fractures, Author-Louis
Solomon, chapter 25-26, publisher- Hodder Arnold, 9th edition.

B

Developmental dysplasia of hip

Reference: Apley’s system of orthopedics and fractures, Author-Louis
Solomon, page no-493, publisher- Hodder Arnold, 9th edition.

C

Chondrodiatasis

Reference: Apley’s system of orthopedics and fractures, Author-Louis
Solomon, page no-320, publisher- Hodder Arnold, 9th edition.

A

Mafucci disease.

Reference: Apley’s system of orthopedics and fractures, Author-Louis
Solomon, page no-165, publisher- Hodder Arnold, 9th edition.

C

Pain on passive flexion of the digit

Reference: Apley’s system of orthopedics and fractures, Author-Louis
Solomon, page no-433, publisher- Hodder Arnold, 9th edition.

D

Ref: Miller’s Text book of Anaesthesia. Vol 1

A

Ref: Lee's Synopsis of Anaesthesia. Nicholas J. H. Davies and Jeremy N.
Cashman . 13 Edition

C

Parsons disease of the eye 21st Ed.Chapter – 10 Pg 103

B

Parsons disease of the eye 21st Ed. chapter 19 Pg 290

D

Parsons disease of the eye 21st Ed. Chapter 26 Pg 405

C

Scott- Brown’s Otolaryngology, Sixth edition, 1997, page 3/7/5

C

Scott- Brown’s Otolaryngology, Sixth edition, 1997, page 5/10/13

B

Shaw’s Text Book of Gynaecology , Page No. 288

B

Shaw’s Text Book of Gynaecology, Page No.69

A

Shaw’s Text Book of Gynaecology, Page No.91

B

Shaw’s Text Book of Gynaecology, Page No.474

D

Shaw’s Text Book of Gynaecology, Page No.283

D

Dutta’s Text Book of Obstetrics, Page No.90

A

Dutta’s Text Book of Obstetrics, Page No.258

A

Dutta’s Text Book of Obstetrics, Page No.314

D

Dutta’s Text Book of Obstetrics, Page No.226

A

Dutta’s Text Book of Obstetrics, Page No.474

B

(Anatomy of Upper Limb & Thorax, Vishram Singh, ELSEVIER 1st edition

2011, Pg-77)

A

(Anatomy of Abdomen and lower limb. First edition 2011, Vishram Singh,
Elsevier publications. Page No.352)

C

(TB of anatomy AK Dutta, part III – 1st edition, pg 157)

B

Textbook of Medical Physiology, Guyton & Hall, Elsevier, 2006, 11/e, 121

D

Review of Medical Physiology,William F. Ganong,McGraw Hill, 2003,
21/e,359

B

Text book of Biochemistry

For Medical Students Vasudevan, Sreekumari S, Kannan Vaidyanathan,
JAYPEE , 2011, 6th edition,342

A

Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry Robert K.Murray, Lange Medical
Publications, 2009, 28th, 473

A

Lippincott’s Illustrated Reviews Richard A) HarveyWolters Kluwer (India) Pvt
Ltd, 2011, 5th Editio, 286

B

Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi

B

Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi

D

Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi

A

Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi

D

Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi

A

Text book of Microbiology,Ananthnarayan and Paniker’s 8th ed. Universities
Press, 199

D

Text book of Microbiology,Ananthnarayan and Paniker’s 8th ed. Universities
Press,368

C

Text book of Microbiology,Ananthnarayan and Paniker’s 8th ed. Universities
Press,533

A

Text book of Microbiology,Ananthnarayan and Paniker’s 8th ed. Universities
Press,210

A

Text book of Microbiology,Ananthnarayan and Paniker’s 8th ed. Universities
Press,604

B

B - Pathologic Basis of Disease – Robbins and Cotran, Elsevier,2010, 8th
edition, page no – 57

B

B - Pathologic Basis of Disease – Robbins and Cotran, Elsevier,2010, 8th
edition, page no – 313

C

C - Pathologic Basis of Disease – Robbins and Cotran, Elsevier,2010, 8th
edition, page no – 988

C

C - Pathologic Basis of Disease – Robbins and Cotran, Elsevier,2010, 8th
edition, page no – 907

B

B - Pathologic Basis of Disease – Robbins and Cotran, Elsevier,2010, 8th
edition, page no – 999

B

The Essential forensic Medicine Toxicology,V.V.Pillay,15th Ed. 2010,130,<-snip->
Pub.

A

Text book of Forensic Medicine Toxicology,V.V.Pillay,15th Ed. 2010,367,<-snip->
Pub.

C

Textbook of community medicine,Sunder Lal,Second

CBS publishers,2009,5

B

Textbook of community medicine,Sunder Lal,Second,CBS publishers

2009,36

C

Textbook of community medicine,Sunder Lal,Second,CBS
publishers,2009,117

A

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,M C Gupta,Third ,Jaypee
,2005,538

D

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,K Park,Twenty one,Bhanot
publishers,2011,166

C

Textbook of public health,Rajvir B,First,AFMC,2009,225

D

Textbook of public health,Rajvir B,First,AFMC,2009,445

C

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,K Park,Twenty one,Bhanot
publishers,2011,293

C

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,K Park,Twenty one,Bhanot
publishers,2011,353

B

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,K Park,Twenty one,Bhanot
publishers,2011,748

D

Harrison’s Principles of Internal medicine (II),Anthony S. Fauci et al,McGraw
Hill, 2008, 17th Edition,2008

C

Harrison’s Principles of Internal medicine (II),Anthony S. Fauci et al,McGraw
Hill, 2008, 17th Edition,1384

A

Clinical medicine,Praveen Kumar & Michael Clark,Elsevier, 2009,7th
Edition,797

C

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H Ralston ,Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,1188

D

Harrison’s Principles of Internal medicine (II),Anthony S. Fauci et al McGraw
Hill, 2008,17th Edition,1736

D

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H Ralston Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,945

D

Clinical medicinePraveen Kumar & Michael Clark Elsevier, 2009 7th
Edition,1258

A

Macleod’s Clinical examination,Graham Douglas, Fiona Nicol,Colin
Robertson,Elsevier, 2009, 12th Edition,448

D

Clinical medicine,Praveen Kumar & Michael Clark,Elsevier, 2009,7th
Edition,660

C

Clinical medicine,Praveen Kumar & Michael Clark,Elsevier,2009,7th
Edition,280

A

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H Ralston Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,390

C

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H Ralston Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,363

A

Clinical medicine,Praveen Kumar & Michael Clark,Elsevier, 2009,7th
Edition,535, 778, 567, 779

B

Clinical medicine ,Praveen Kumar & Michael Clark,Elsevier, 2009,7th
Edition,329

C

Hutchison’s Clinical Methods,Michael Swash, Michael Glynn,Elsevier,
2007,22nd edition 465,

B

OP Ghai Essential Paediatrics Seventh edition , Chapter 7 page ,144

A

Illustrated textbook of Paediatrics Second Edition, Tom Lissauer & Graham
layden Chapter 8 page 100

D

Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics Seventeenth Edition,

D

OP Ghai Essential Paediatrics, Seventh, edition,Chapter11 page 303

A

OP Ghai Essential Paediatrics Seventh edition, Chapter 6 page 82

B

COMPREHENSIVE TEXT BOOK OF PSYCHIATRY –SYNOPSIS, 10th Edition.
Kaplan & addock

C

COMPREHENSIVE TEXT BOOK OF PSYCHIATRY –SYNOPSIS, 10th Edition.
Kaplan & addock

A

IADVL Text Book of Dermatology,3rd edition,page no.921

B

IADVL Text Book of Dermatology,3rd edition,page no.1467

B

IADVL Text Book of Dermatology,3rd edition,page no.1916

C

Text book of Radiology and Imaging, Vol-I, David Sutton, pg: 53, Churchill
Livingstone, 7th Edn, 2003

A

Grainger &Allison’s Diagnostic Radiology Vol-I, R.G.Grainger & D.J. Allison,
pg:55, Churchill Livingstone Elsevier, 5th Edn, 2008

A

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J. K.
Page No.4

C

FcROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.14

A

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.30

C

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.45

A

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J. K.
Page No.54

C

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.75

B

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.187

D

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.232

C

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.301

C

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.329

A

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.606

D

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.616

A

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.757

C

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.796

D

FROM BAILEY AND LOVE ---SHORT PRACTICE OF SURGERY. 25
EDITION EDITED BY NORMAN S . WILLIAMS , CHRISTOPHER J.
K.Page No.1224

B

Kocher’s technique

Reference: Apley’s system of orthopedics and fractures. Author-Louis
Solomon, page no 740, publisher- Hodder Arnold, 9th edition.

C

Trachea deviated to the same side with hyper resonance on the opposite side
of pneumothorax.

Reference: Apley’s system of orthopedics and fractures, Author-Louis
Solomon, page no-648, publisher- Hodder Arnold, 9th edition

A

Meniscal injury.

Reference: Apley’s system of orthopedics and fractures, Author-Louis
Solomon, page no-552, 553. Publisher- Hodder Arnold, 9th edition.

D

Early signs are Hypothermia, hypotension and bradycardia.

Reference: Apley’s system of orthopedics and fractures, Author-Louis
Solomon, page no-681, publisher- Hodder Arnold, 9th edition.

A

Preiser’s disease.

Reference: Apley’s system of orthopedics and fractures, Author-Louis
Solomon, page no-399, publisher- Hodder Arnold, 9th edition.

A

Ref: Miller’s Text book of Anaesthesia. Vol 1

D

Ref: Stoelting pharmacology & Physiology In Anesthetic Practice/ Edition 4

D

Ref: Lee's Synopsis of Anaesthesia. Nicholas J. H. Davies and Jeremy N.
Cashman . 13 Edition

D

Parsons disease of the eye 21st Ed. chapter 15 Pg 211

D

Parsons disease of the eye 21st Ed. Chapter 22 Pg 352

A

P L Dhingra- Diseases of Ear nose and Throat, 5th Edition, 2010, page 190

B

Scott- Brown’s Otolaryngology, Sixth edition, 1997, page 3/1/27

D

P L Dhingra- Diseases of Ear nose and Throat, 5th Edition, 2010, page 354

C

Shaw’s Text Book of Gynaecology, Page No.243

D

Shaw’s Text Book of Gynaecology, Page No.187

C

Shaw’s Text Book of Gynaecology, Page No. 427

A

Shaw’s Text Book of Gynaecology, Page No.303

C

Shaw’s Text Book of Gynaecology, Page No.337

C

Dutta’s Text Book of Obstetrics, Page No.76

B

Dutta’s Text Book of Obstetrics, Page No.204

C

Dutta’s Text Book of Obstetrics, Page No.159

D

Dutta’s Text Book of Obstetrics, Page No.415

A

Dutta’s Text Book of Obstetrics, Page No.284

C

(TB of histology, LV Prabhu, A Kumar & Mangala Pai, EMMESS publishers 2nd
Ed, 2011, Page -94)

D

(Anatomy of Abdomen and lower limb. First edition 2011, Vishram Singh,
Elsevier publications. Page No.233

C

Review of Medical Physiology,William F. Ganong,McGraw Hill, 2003,
21/e,219

A

Review of Medical Physiology, William F. Ganong, McGraw Hill, 2003,
21/e,240

A

Review of Medical Physiology,William F. Ganong,McGraw Hill, 2003, 21/e,90

B

Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry Robert K.Murray, Lange Medical
Publications, 2009, 535

C

Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry Robert K.Murray, Lange Medical
Publications, 2009, 476-478

C

Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi, Sixth Edition, Reprint:
2009, Jaypee Brothers Medical publishers (P) Ltd.

C

Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi

A

Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi

A

Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi

B

Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by K D Tripathi

C

Text book of Microbiology,Ananthnarayan and Paniker’s 8th ed. Universities
Press,298

C

Text book of Microbiology,Ananthnarayan and Paniker’s 8th ed. Universities
Press,510

A

Text book of Microbiology,Ananthnarayan and Paniker’s 8th ed. Universities
Press,333

D

Text book of Microbiology,Ananthnarayan and Paniker’s 8th ed. Universities
Press,227

B

Medical Parasitology,Arora and Arora. 3rd Edition . CBS publishers,156

C

C Pathologic Basis of Disease – Robbins and Cotran, Elsevier,2010, 8th
edition, Page no – 15

B

B - Pathologic Basis of Disease – Robbins and Cotran, Elsevier,2010, 8th
edition, page no – 163

D

D – de Gruchy”s Clinical Haematology in Medical Practice, Blackwell Science
1996,5th edition, page no– 72

C

C - Pathologic Basis of Disease – Robbins and Cotran, Elsevier,2010, 8th
edition, page no – 1233

A

A - Pathologic Basis of Disease – Robbins and Cotran, Elsevier,2010, 8th
edition, page – 1314

C

Text book of Forensic Medicine Toxicology,V.V.Pillay,15th Ed. 2010,47,<-snip->
Pub.

D

Text book of Forensic Medicine Toxicology,V.V.Pillay,15th Ed. 2010,35,<-snip->
Pub.

D

Text book of Forensic Medicine Toxicology,V.V.Pillay,15th Ed. 2010,157,<-snip->
Pub.

B

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,M C Gupta

Third ,Jaypee ,2005,79

D

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,K Park,Twenty one,Bhanot
publishers,188

D

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,M C Gupta,Third ,Jaypee
,2005,373

A

Textbook of public health,Rajvir B,First,AFMC,2009,131

D

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,K Park,Twenty one,Bhanot
publishers,2011,132

D

Textbook of public health,Rajvir B,First,AFMC,2009,405

B

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,K Park,Twenty one,Bhanot
publishers,2011,572

C

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,K Park,Twenty one,Bhanot
publishers,2011,235

D

Textbook of preventive and social medicine,K Park,Twenty one,Bhanot
publishers,2011,306

D

Textbook of public health,Rajvir B,First,AFMC,2009,344

B

Harrison’s Principles of Internal medicine (I),Anthony S. Fauci et al,McGraw
Hill, 2008, 17th Edition,633

B

Harrison’s Principles of Internal medicine (II),Anthony S. Fauci et al,McGraw
Hill, 2008, 17th Edition,2376

B

Clinical medicine,Praveen Kumar & Michael Clark,Elsevier, 2009,7th
Edition,119-120

A

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H Ralston Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,762

B

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H Ralston ,Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,311, 953, 407, 313

B

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H Ralston Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,740

D

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H Ralston Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,1034-1035

C

Clinical medicine,Praveen Kumar & Michael Clark,Elsevier, 2009,7th
Edition,1174

B

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H Ralston Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,899

B

Harrison’s Principles of Internal medicine (I),Anthony S. Fauci et al,McGraw
Hill, 2008,17th Edition,1230 & 1239

D

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R Walker
Stuart H Ralston Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,443

B

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H Ralston Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,268

D

Clinical medicine,Praveen Kumar & Michael Clark,Elsevier, 2009,7th
Edition,657

A

Clinical medicine,Praveen Kumar & Michael Clark,Elsevier, 2009,7th
Edition,532

B

Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine,Nicki R Colledge,Brian R
Walker,Stuart H ,alston Elsevier, 2010,21st edition,822

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